- #1
watty
- 9
- 0
Hello guys,
I'm having some trouble getting my head around the method of images, partly due to confusing notes and things.
If I have a charge +q at a fixed point (0,0,a) above a conducting plane that is held at zero potential, it is said that the plane can be replaced with a charge of -q at (0,0,-a) as this solution satisfies the same boundary conditions (as per the uniqueness theorem).
How is it that the potential on the surface of the plane can be 0 but the electric field be described as q/(2pi x espilon_0 x a^2)?
I would have thought the potential be non-zero in the case of the mirror charge. Can the two charges not be thought of as a dipole? As in their field lines are both going in the same direction. Only if both charges were the +q or both -q would the potential, in my mind at least, be zero midway between them.
Any help would be greatly appreciated,
watty
I'm having some trouble getting my head around the method of images, partly due to confusing notes and things.
If I have a charge +q at a fixed point (0,0,a) above a conducting plane that is held at zero potential, it is said that the plane can be replaced with a charge of -q at (0,0,-a) as this solution satisfies the same boundary conditions (as per the uniqueness theorem).
How is it that the potential on the surface of the plane can be 0 but the electric field be described as q/(2pi x espilon_0 x a^2)?
I would have thought the potential be non-zero in the case of the mirror charge. Can the two charges not be thought of as a dipole? As in their field lines are both going in the same direction. Only if both charges were the +q or both -q would the potential, in my mind at least, be zero midway between them.
Any help would be greatly appreciated,
watty