- #1
ChrisVer
Gold Member
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I am trying to understand what the author means by the attachment (the underlined phrase).
In my understanding if the masses were equal I should have:
[itex] \frac{1}{(p^{2}-m^{2}+i \epsilon)^{2}} \sum_{ij} U^{d_{L}}_{di} U^{d_{L} \dagger}_{is}U^{d_{L}}_{dj} U^{d_{L} \dagger}_{js}[/itex]
why is the unitary supposed to make it vanish?
(the attachment is from page 202 of Theory and Phenomenology of Sparticles (2004)- M.Drees, R.Godbole,P.Roy)
In my understanding if the masses were equal I should have:
[itex] \frac{1}{(p^{2}-m^{2}+i \epsilon)^{2}} \sum_{ij} U^{d_{L}}_{di} U^{d_{L} \dagger}_{is}U^{d_{L}}_{dj} U^{d_{L} \dagger}_{js}[/itex]
why is the unitary supposed to make it vanish?
(the attachment is from page 202 of Theory and Phenomenology of Sparticles (2004)- M.Drees, R.Godbole,P.Roy)