
#1
Apr1410, 08:47 AM

P: 2

[b]1. I am trying to calculate the laurent series expansion of the function 1/(1z)² in the region 1<z
[b]2. None [b]3. I can get an answer informally by doing the polynomial division like in high school, but I don't know if this is the right answer and in case it is I cannot prove it. Any help would be largely appreciated. 



#2
Apr1410, 12:22 PM

P: 351

Recall that if a function is analytic on a domain, then its Laurent series and Taylor series are identical. Do you know how to do the Taylor series expansion?



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