
#1
Oct1511, 07:36 AM

P: 2

1. The problem statement, all variables and given/known data
[itex]F_{X}(x)= λe^{λx} \;for\; x>0 \;\;\;and \;0 \;otherwise[/itex] After finding the characteristic function for the Exponential Distribution, which is (I could do this without problem); [itex]F_{X}(k)=λ(λik)^{1}[/itex] Now the question is; Let [itex]X_1,X_2,\ldots,X_i[/itex] be i.i.d. exponential random variables with parameter λ and let; [itex]Y_N=\sum_{i=1}^{N}X_i[/itex] (Sum starts from i=1, I am new to LaTeX, I'm not sure if this is the right way to express the end points of the sum) Using the generating function method, show that the pdf of [itex]Y_N[/itex] is given as; [itex]f_Y(y) = λ\frac{(λy)^{N1}}{(N1)!}e^{λy}[/itex] 2. Relevant equations [itex]\Gamma(n) = \int_0^{\infty}t^{n1}e^{t}dt[/itex] Which is (n1)! for n>0 together with [itex]\Gamma(1/2)=\sqrt{\pi}[/itex] Also with a simple substutition of t=az dt = adz [itex]\Gamma(n) = a^n\int_0^{\infty}z^{n1}e^{za}dz[/itex] I used this to show in the same question that [itex]<X^n>= n!λ^{n}[/itex] There is a Hint in this part of the question which says (exact copy); "You can do this without having to explicitly do the kintegral of the inverse Fourier transform. Instead show that this integral can be written as a higherorder derivative with respect to a parameter inside a simpler integral, whose result you already now" 3. The attempt at a solution From the fact that the sum of random variables applies to generating functions as multipication, it can easily be found that; [itex]F_{Y}(k)=λ^N(λik)^{N}[/itex] Now my first problem is taking the inverse Fourier Transform of this guy because I am not sure what the end points of the integral should be. In the first part where I was finding the Characteristic Function of the Exponential Distribution, it was easy to see since [itex]F_X(x)[/itex] was defined to be 0 when x is negative. But now taking the inverse fourier transform, should I leave the limits from infinity to infinity as it is for the usual Fourier Transform, or should they be from 0 to infinity? The answer to this question won't help me solve my problem since I tried with both, but I want to learn how should I be thinking here to get to the right answer. So the Fourier Transform looks like; [itex]f_Y(y) = λ^N \int_{0 or \infty}^{\infty}(λik)^{N}e^{iky}dk = I[/itex] The result is given but I can't get myself to it. I played with this for hours and I am at a point where since I did focus on something for too long, I lost perspective and can't have any new ideas to try. We know I am not to solve the integral explicitly, instead change it into something I already now. I tried; [itex](λik)^{N} =\frac{i^N}{N!}\frac{d^N(λik)^{1}}{dk^N}[/itex] I played with the Gamma Function etc. By the way I should say, I don't think we are meant to be familiar with the Incomplete Gamma Function. Since I need to get (N1)! at the bottom of the fraction I know somehow the reciprocal of the Gamma Function is to be found here, but I don't think I am meant to know the reciprocal of the Gamma Function, so I need to somehow get (N1)! out and from the remaining integral get y^(N1). Also please note that if the initial integral is called I, then; [itex]Ie^{λy}=λ^N\int_{0 or \infty}^{\infty}(λik)^{N}e^{(λik)y}dk[/itex] I of course also tried the substition of u = (λik) du = idk idu = dk and several other substitions similar to this. I would have written a lot more about my hours of attempts, but I really don't think spending hours on typing in LaTeX is necessary at this point :) I would really appreciate if someone could push me in the right direction since after hours I am stuck at the same thoughts and can't continue. :) P.S. I forgot 1/2pi in the inverse fourier transforms :) Thank you for all your help. 


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