|Oct30-11, 07:37 AM||#1|
simple question regarding polynomials
Hello all I had a simple question that I am intuitively sure I know the answer to but can't quite prove it.
Suppose k is a polynomial in x and y, and k(x-1) = q for q some polynomial in y. Then is k = 0 ?
How do I verify that k must be equal to 0? I can see that to just get a polynomial in y we have to try to get rid of that x term, but I can't quite prove why we cant just make some polynomial that gets rid of it somehow.
any help would be appreciated, thanks
|Oct30-11, 07:45 AM||#2|
Suppose k != 0, so q = ...
|Oct30-11, 09:56 AM||#3|
If k=0, then k(x-1)=q=0.
If you let a polynomial in y be P(y) then if k=P(y)/(x-1), q=P(y)....
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