
#1
Oct3011, 07:37 AM

P: 8

Hello all I had a simple question that I am intuitively sure I know the answer to but can't quite prove it.
Suppose k is a polynomial in x and y, and k(x1) = q for q some polynomial in y. Then is k = 0 ? How do I verify that k must be equal to 0? I can see that to just get a polynomial in y we have to try to get rid of that x term, but I can't quite prove why we cant just make some polynomial that gets rid of it somehow. any help would be appreciated, thanks 



#2
Oct3011, 07:45 AM

HW Helper
P: 805

Suppose k != 0, so q = ...




#3
Oct3011, 09:56 AM

P: 269

If k=0, then k(x1)=q=0.
If you let a polynomial in y be P(y) then if k=P(y)/(x1), q=P(y).... 


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