- #1
spaghetti3451
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I have a question regarding the parameters that reduces the Planck distribution to the Rayleigh-Jeans distribution.
According to the Planck distribution, the average energy in a unit volume in the [itex]\nu[/itex] frequency mode of a blackbody radiation field is [itex]<U> = \frac{h\nu}{e \frac{h\nu}{KT} - 1}[/itex]. And , I see that in both the limits [itex]\nu \rightarrow 0[/itex] and [itex]T \rightarrow \infty[/itex], the expression reduces to the classical Rayleigh-Jeans form.
Are these two limits a part of the correspondence principle?
According to the Planck distribution, the average energy in a unit volume in the [itex]\nu[/itex] frequency mode of a blackbody radiation field is [itex]<U> = \frac{h\nu}{e \frac{h\nu}{KT} - 1}[/itex]. And , I see that in both the limits [itex]\nu \rightarrow 0[/itex] and [itex]T \rightarrow \infty[/itex], the expression reduces to the classical Rayleigh-Jeans form.
Are these two limits a part of the correspondence principle?