- #1
DanielR1
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- TL;DR Summary
- How does the premise that lamda=h/mv make sense? The derivation doesn't seem mathematically correct.
I'm confused on how De Broglie's hypothesis works. I've attached my thinking in a pdf file below.
I'm not an expert in the field of particle physics(I'm only in high school), so there may be some error in my logic(I really think so, or else De Broglie was wrong!(hint:he isn't))
I've also read that Method 1 is wrong as a whole, but I decided to include it anyways. I think method 2 is the stronger argument though.
Any particle physics expert know the origin of De Broglie's hypothesis, and know the error I have made? I would really like to know, this has been bugging me for a bit.
Thank you!
*edit: I made a small but significant math error, I just fixed it and it should be okay now(but the problem still persists, just slightly differently)
I'm not an expert in the field of particle physics(I'm only in high school), so there may be some error in my logic(I really think so, or else De Broglie was wrong!(hint:he isn't))
I've also read that Method 1 is wrong as a whole, but I decided to include it anyways. I think method 2 is the stronger argument though.
Any particle physics expert know the origin of De Broglie's hypothesis, and know the error I have made? I would really like to know, this has been bugging me for a bit.
Thank you!
*edit: I made a small but significant math error, I just fixed it and it should be okay now(but the problem still persists, just slightly differently)
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