- #1
dreamLord
- 203
- 7
I know this probably belongs in one of the math sections, but I did not quite know where to put it, so I put it in here since I am studying Electrodynamics from Griffiths, and in the first chapter he talks about Dirac Delta function.
From what I've gathered, Dirac Delta function is 0 for x[itex]\neq[/itex]0, and ∞ for x = 0.
Now he assumes any function f(x), and says that the product f(x)*[itex]\delta[/itex](x) = 0 for x[itex]\neq[/itex]0. Fine, got that.
Now he goes on to say that the above statement can also be written as f(0)*[itex]\delta[/itex](x) = 0. My question is - we could also have written it as f(29.5)*[itex]\delta[/itex](x) = 0 for x[itex]\neq[/itex]0, right? So then why did we choose f(0)?
From what I've gathered, Dirac Delta function is 0 for x[itex]\neq[/itex]0, and ∞ for x = 0.
Now he assumes any function f(x), and says that the product f(x)*[itex]\delta[/itex](x) = 0 for x[itex]\neq[/itex]0. Fine, got that.
Now he goes on to say that the above statement can also be written as f(0)*[itex]\delta[/itex](x) = 0. My question is - we could also have written it as f(29.5)*[itex]\delta[/itex](x) = 0 for x[itex]\neq[/itex]0, right? So then why did we choose f(0)?