- #1
Chopin
- 368
- 13
In Srednicki's book, he discusses quantizing a non-interacting spin-0 field [tex]\phi(x)[/tex] by defining the KG Lagrangian, and then using it to derive the canonical conjugate momentum [tex]\pi(x) = \dot{\phi}(x)[/tex]. Then, he states that, by analogy with normal QM, the commutation relations between these fields is:
[tex][\phi(x), \phi(x')] = 0[/tex]
[tex][\pi(x), \pi(x')] = 0[/tex]
[tex][\phi(x), \pi(x')] = i\delta^3(x-x')[/tex]
Can this be derived from anything we know so far, or does it simply have to be taken on faith? These relations are used to derive the commutation relations for the creation/annihilation operators, which in turn allow us to derive the spectrum of the Hamiltonian, so it looks like they form the basis of pretty much everything that follows.
[tex][\phi(x), \phi(x')] = 0[/tex]
[tex][\pi(x), \pi(x')] = 0[/tex]
[tex][\phi(x), \pi(x')] = i\delta^3(x-x')[/tex]
Can this be derived from anything we know so far, or does it simply have to be taken on faith? These relations are used to derive the commutation relations for the creation/annihilation operators, which in turn allow us to derive the spectrum of the Hamiltonian, so it looks like they form the basis of pretty much everything that follows.