- #1
spaghetti3451
- 1,344
- 33
Lagrangians that include a particle field and its corresponding antiparticle field always have the particle field and the antiparticle field in the same terms.
For example, in the theory of a complex scalar boson ##\phi##, the Lagrangian is a function of ##\phi^{*}\phi##, and not of ##\phi## and ##\phi^{*}## separately.
Also, in the theory of a Dirac fermion ##\psi##, the Lagrangian is a function of ##\bar{\psi}\psi##, and not of ##\psi## and ##\bar{\psi}## separately.
This makes it difficult to see if the fermion is ##\psi## and the antifermion is ##\bar{\psi}## or if, the fermion is ##\bar{\psi}## and the antifermion is ##\psi##.
Is there a way to solve this problem?
For example, in the theory of a complex scalar boson ##\phi##, the Lagrangian is a function of ##\phi^{*}\phi##, and not of ##\phi## and ##\phi^{*}## separately.
Also, in the theory of a Dirac fermion ##\psi##, the Lagrangian is a function of ##\bar{\psi}\psi##, and not of ##\psi## and ##\bar{\psi}## separately.
This makes it difficult to see if the fermion is ##\psi## and the antifermion is ##\bar{\psi}## or if, the fermion is ##\bar{\psi}## and the antifermion is ##\psi##.
Is there a way to solve this problem?