- #1
etotheipi
- Homework Statement
- The wave function of a particle in a harmonic potential is an expansion of terms of the form$$\psi_n(x) = A_n (a_+)^n e^{-\frac{m\omega}{2\hbar }x^2}$$Determine the coefficients ##A_n##
Answer: $$A_n = \left (\frac{m\omega}{\pi \hbar} \right)^{\frac{1}{4}} \frac{(-i)^n}{\sqrt{n!(\hbar \omega)^n}}$$
- Relevant Equations
- N/A
The previous part was to show that ##a_+ \psi_n = i\sqrt{(n+1)\hbar \omega} \psi_{n+1}##, which I just did by looking at$$\int |a_+ \psi_n|^2 dx = \int \psi_n^* (a_{-} a_+ \psi_n) dx = E+\frac{1}{2}\hbar \omega = \hbar \omega(n+1)$$so the constant of proportionality between ##a_+ \psi_n## and ##\psi_{n+1}## will have modulus ##\sqrt{\hbar \omega(n+1)}##. Then it asks to determine the normalisation constant ##A_n##, so I looked at the lowest energy state first$$\psi_0 = A_0 e^{-\frac{m\omega}{2\hbar}x^2}$$ $$\int |\psi_0|^2 dx = |A_0|^2 \int e^{-\frac{m\omega}{\hbar}x^2} dx = |A_0|^2 \sqrt{\frac{\pi \hbar}{m\omega}} = 1 \implies |A_0| = \left (\frac{m\omega}{\pi \hbar} \right)^{\frac{1}{4}}$$where I used the result for the Gaussian integral without proof. Then I just assumed that since ##\psi## can always be taken to be real, we can just take ##A_0 = \left (\frac{m\omega}{\pi \hbar} \right)^{\frac{1}{4}}##. Then using the previous result, we would have$$\psi_n = \left( \frac{a_+}{i\sqrt{\hbar \omega(n+1)}} \right)^n \left (\frac{m\omega}{\pi \hbar} \right)^{\frac{1}{4}} e^{-\frac{m\omega}{2\hbar}x^2}$$Edit: On second thoughts, this equation is obviously incorrect, because I don't account for the fact that ##n## is different (not constant) each time we apply the operator
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