- #1
cmj1988
- 23
- 0
This specifically relates more towards the argument as to why an inverse exists.
First the problem
The normalizer is defined as follows, NG(H)={g-1Hg=H} for some g in NG(H). I get why identity exists and why the operation is closed. It is in arguing that an inverse exists that I have beef. Specifically this argument:
eHe= (g-1)-1g-1Hgg-1=(g-1)-1Hg-1
so g-1 is in NG(H)
This above proof I found in the book Groups, rings, and fields by D.A.R. Wallace.
I wondering why this is more valid than this:
H=gHg-1
g-1H=Hg-1
g-1Hg=H
So g-1 is in NG(H)
I'm sorry if this question is so dense someone has an aneurysm
First the problem
The normalizer is defined as follows, NG(H)={g-1Hg=H} for some g in NG(H). I get why identity exists and why the operation is closed. It is in arguing that an inverse exists that I have beef. Specifically this argument:
eHe= (g-1)-1g-1Hgg-1=(g-1)-1Hg-1
so g-1 is in NG(H)
This above proof I found in the book Groups, rings, and fields by D.A.R. Wallace.
I wondering why this is more valid than this:
H=gHg-1
g-1H=Hg-1
g-1Hg=H
So g-1 is in NG(H)
I'm sorry if this question is so dense someone has an aneurysm
Last edited: