Particle's spin when subject to a constant magnetic field

In summary, the problem involves an alkali atom passing through a Stern-Gerlach apparatus and then traveling through a region of constant magnetic field. The atoms then pass through a second Stern-Gerlach apparatus that only allows atoms with spin along the -z direction to pass. The probability that they will pass can be determined using Schrodinger's equation and initial conditions. However, there appears to be a problem with a factor of 2 in the calculations.
  • #1
Jalo
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Homework Statement



An alkali atom, on it's fundamental state, passes through a Stern-Gerlach apparatum, which will only transmit atoms with their spins aligned along the +z direction. After that the atoms travel, during a finite time τ, through a region of constant magnetic field [itex]\vec{B}=B\vec{e_{x}}[/itex].

After that time τ the atoms pass through a new Stern-Gerlach apparatum, which only allows atoms with spin along -z to pass. What's the probability that they will pass?

Homework Equations



Pauli matrices
[itex]\widehat{H}=-\vec{u_{B}}.\widehat{S}[/itex]
[itex]u_{B}=\frac{q}{2m_{e}}[/itex]


The Attempt at a Solution



From the problem it's easy to see that the state of the system at the instant t=0 is:

[itex]|\psi>(t=0)=|+>_{z}[/itex]

Then I assumed that, while being under the influence of the constant magnetic field along the x direction, the state is:

[itex]|\psi>=\alpha (t)|+>_{z} + \beta (t) |->_{z}[/itex]

Next I applied the hamiltonian to my state [itex]|\psi>[/itex]. Since [itex]\vec{B} = B\vec{e_{x}}[/itex]:

[itex]\widehat{H}|\psi>=-\frac{qB}{2m}\widehat{S_{x}}|\psi>[/itex]
[itex]\widehat{H}|\psi>=-\frac{qB}{2m}\widehat{S_{x}}(\alpha (t)|+>_{z}+\beta (t) |->_{z})[/itex]

Since [itex]\widehat{S_{x}}=\hbar \sigma _{x}[/itex], applying it to [itex]|\psi>[/itex] returns:
[itex]\widehat{H}|\psi>=-\frac{qB\hbar}{4m}(\beta (t)|+>_{z}+\alpha (t) |->_{z})[/itex]

Defining [itex]\omega=\frac{qB}{4m}[/itex]:

[itex]\widehat{H}|\psi>=-w\hbar(\beta (t)|+>_{z}+\alpha (t) |->_{z})[/itex]

Now, using Schrodinger's equation we get:

[itex]\widehat{H}|\psi>=i\hbar \frac{d}{dt}|\psi>[/itex]
[itex]\frac{d}{dt}(\alpha (t)|+>_{z} + \beta (t) |->_{z}) = iw(\beta (t)|+>_{z}+\alpha (t) |->_{z})[/itex]

Separating this we get:

[itex]\frac{d}{dt}\alpha (t) = iw\beta (t)[/itex]
[itex]\frac{d}{dt}\beta (t) = iw\alpha (t)[/itex]

Applying another derivative to the first differential equation we get:
[itex]\frac{d^{2}}{dt^{2}}\alpha (t) = iw\frac{d}{dt}\beta (t)[/itex]
[itex]\frac{d^{2}}{dt^{2}}\alpha (t) = -w^{2}\alpha[/itex]

Doing the same to the second achieves a similar result:

[itex]\frac{d^{2}}{dt^{2}}\beta (t) = -w^{2}\beta[/itex]

Solving both I got:

[itex]\alpha (t) = Ae^{iwt} + Be^{-iwt}[/itex]
[itex]\alpha (t) = Ce^{iwt} + De^{-iwt}[/itex]

Now, since I know that [itex]|\psi>(t=0) = |+>_{z}[/itex], I know that:
[itex]A+B=1[/itex]
[itex]C = -D[/itex]

From this I can conclude that:
[itex]\beta (t) = Fsin(wt)[/itex]

This is as far as I can get.. I don't know what to do from here. Am I approaching the problem wrongly? Any help would be appreciated.

Thanks.
Daniel
 
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  • #2
Hello, Daniel.

First, there appears to be a problem with a factor of 2 in your expression
[itex]\widehat{H}|\psi>=-\frac{qB\hbar}{4m}(\beta (t)|+>_{z}+\alpha (t) |->_{z})[/itex].

I don't believe the 4 in the denominator is correct. Did you include the "g-factor" of the electron? Anyway, you might see if you can track down the error. (Hope I'm not the one in error, I always get a headache with the factors of 2 in this type of problem!)

Later, you have

[itex]\alpha (t) = Ae^{iwt} + Be^{-iwt}[/itex]
[itex]\alpha (t) = Ce^{iwt} + De^{-iwt}[/itex]


In the second equation I think you meant to type [itex]\beta (t)[/itex] instead of [itex]\alpha (t)[/itex].

This looks good (but your ##\omega## will need to be corrected for the factor of 2 problem mentioned above).

But note, C and D are not independent of A and B. Remember you have

[itex]\frac{d}{dt}\alpha (t) = iw\beta (t)[/itex]

So, you can determine [itex]\beta (t)[/itex] from [itex]\alpha (t)[/itex].

You should be able to find A and B from the initial conditions and from the fact that you want your state to be normalized.
 
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  • #3
I forgot that I was only interested in the [itex]|->_{z}[/itex] component.
Regarding the factor of 2, I'll correct it. However my major issue has been resolved, so thanks!
 

1. What is particle spin?

Particle spin is a fundamental property of particles that describes their intrinsic angular momentum. It is similar to the spinning of a top or a gyroscope, but it does not involve any physical rotation.

2. How does a particle's spin interact with a magnetic field?

When a particle with spin is placed in a magnetic field, it will experience a torque that causes it to precess around the direction of the magnetic field. This is known as the Zeeman effect.

3. What is the significance of a constant magnetic field on a particle's spin?

A constant magnetic field can be used to manipulate a particle's spin, which is important for applications such as magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) and quantum computing. It can also provide information about the properties of the particle, such as its spin quantum number.

4. How does the direction of the magnetic field affect a particle's spin?

The direction of the magnetic field will determine the direction in which the particle's spin will precess. If the magnetic field is aligned with the particle's spin, there will be no precession. However, if the magnetic field is perpendicular to the particle's spin, the precession will be at its maximum.

5. Can a particle's spin change in a constant magnetic field?

Yes, a particle's spin can change in a constant magnetic field through a process called spin-flip. This can occur when the particle interacts with other particles or through external forces, causing its spin to flip to the opposite direction.

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