Proving sinx+cosx is not one-one in [0,π/2]

In summary, the homework statement is that the function sinx+cosx is not one-one in [0,π/2]. However, differentiating the given function shows that it has a positive or negative slope but not both.
  • #1
AdityaDev
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Homework Statement



Prove that sinx+cosx is not one-one in [0,π/2]

Homework Equations



None

The Attempt at a Solution



Let f(α)=f(β)
Then sinα+cosα=sinβ+cosβ
=> √2sin(α+π/4)=√2sin(β+π/4)
=> α=β
so it has to be one-one
[/B]
 
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  • #2
AdityaDev said:

Homework Statement



Prove that sinx+cosx is not one-one in [0,π/2]

Homework Equations



None

The Attempt at a Solution



Let f(α)=f(β)
Then sinα+cosα=sinβ+cosβ
=> √2sin(α+π/4)=√2sin(β+π/4)
=> α=β
so it has to be one-one[/B]

The sine function is not one-one. You can't just invert it without thinking about the domain. Try x=0 and x=pi/2. What do you say now?
 
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Likes Raghav Gupta
  • #3
You can also use calculus.
Differentiate the given function.
It must always have a positive or negative slope but not both.
 
  • #4
Dick said:
The sine function is not one-one. You can't just invert it without thinking about the domain. Try x=0 and x=pi/2. What do you say now?
I know that. But the result I got is contradicting.
 
  • #5
AdityaDev said:
I know that. But the result I got is contradicting.
As dick said, you can't take inverse simply like that. Your 3rd step is wrong and that's why your result is wrong.
The inverse taking depends on domain.
For example f(x) = x2 is not one-one for domain R.
It might seem so.
x12= x22
Taking square root on both sides.
X1= x2
But that's not correct.
 
  • #6
Raghav Gupta said:
As dick said, you can't take inverse simply like that. Your 3rd step is wrong and that's why your result is wrong.
The inverse taking depends on domain.
For example f(x) = x2 is not one-one for domain R.
It might seem so.
x12= x22
Taking square root on both sides.
X1= x2
But that's not correct.
Why can't I take inverse diretly?
In your example, I know that x1=x2 or -x2
but here you can say that from 0 to pi/4, x1=x2
 
  • #7
AdityaDev said:
Why can't I take inverse diretly?
In your example, I know that x1=x2 or -x2
but here you can say that from 0 to pi/4, x1=x2
Yes here 0 to pi/4 your function is one-one but 0 to pi/2 it is not one-one.
See this,
Log 0 is not defined and taking inverse or anti log of it would seem to someone it's zero. But we cannot take here simply the inverse.
So for particular domains we can't take the inverse.
 

Related to Proving sinx+cosx is not one-one in [0,π/2]

1. Why is it important to prove that sinx+cosx is not one-one in [0,π/2]?

Proving that sinx+cosx is not one-one in [0,π/2] is important because it helps us understand the behavior of this function and its limitations. It also allows us to determine the range of the function and make accurate calculations and predictions.

2. What does it mean for a function to be one-one?

A function is one-one if each element in the domain has a unique element in the range. In other words, each input has only one output. This is also known as injectivity.

3. How can we prove that sinx+cosx is not one-one in [0,π/2]?

We can prove that sinx+cosx is not one-one in [0,π/2] by finding two different values of x in the given interval that produce the same output. In other words, we need to show that there exist two values of x, let's say x1 and x2, where x1 ≠ x2, but sinx1+cosx1 = sinx2+cosx2.

4. Can you provide an example of two values of x in [0,π/2] that produce the same output for sinx+cosx?

Yes, for example, if we take x1 = 0 and x2 = π/2, we get sin0+cos0 = 0+1 = 1 and sinπ/2+cosπ/2 = 1+0 = 1. Therefore, sinx+cosx is not one-one in [0,π/2].

5. What is the range of sinx+cosx in [0,π/2]?

The range of sinx+cosx in [0,π/2] is [1, √2], which can be proven by finding the maximum and minimum values of the function in the given interval.

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