- #1
Alpharup
- 225
- 17
Am using Spivak. Spivak elegantly proves that √2 is irrational. The proof is convincing. For that he takes 2 natural numbers, p and q ( p, q> 0)...and proves it.
He defines irrational number which can't be expressed in m/n form (n is not zero).
Here he defines m and n as integers.
But in the earlier proof, he takes p and q as only natural numbers and not integers. Why?
Is it because of definition, he earlier defined?
ie...√((a)^2)...|a|.
ie...root of a real number a
He defines irrational number which can't be expressed in m/n form (n is not zero).
Here he defines m and n as integers.
But in the earlier proof, he takes p and q as only natural numbers and not integers. Why?
Is it because of definition, he earlier defined?
ie...√((a)^2)...|a|.
ie...root of a real number a