- #1
uniqueguy
- 2
- 0
Hi all,
I hope this question is of an acceptable format to ask about here. I'm just having trouble trying to get a conceptual understanding of the following.
I've been told that if I'm given two different frequencies that are completely in phase at time equal to zero, then I can find their phase shift after a certain period of time with the following equation: ##2\pi f_1t-2\pi f_2t##
I'm not certain where this comes from or what the intuition behind using it is. Can anyone help me through trying to understand this equation and its use in this example situation?
I appreciate any help with this matter!
-Uniqueguy
I hope this question is of an acceptable format to ask about here. I'm just having trouble trying to get a conceptual understanding of the following.
I've been told that if I'm given two different frequencies that are completely in phase at time equal to zero, then I can find their phase shift after a certain period of time with the following equation: ##2\pi f_1t-2\pi f_2t##
I'm not certain where this comes from or what the intuition behind using it is. Can anyone help me through trying to understand this equation and its use in this example situation?
I appreciate any help with this matter!
-Uniqueguy