Recent content by Arslan

let me put my question this way why torque is defined as F*r why not F*r^2

or you can say what is the physical interpertation of torque. i know the mathemetics of it but what's its significance in practical terms.

and also its simulink results are showing an impulse as output to step response. And it is intuitively correct that the applied torque will only apply force on cart in form of pulse. i.e body can experience constant force if it is accelerating. if it is moving with contant velcity applied force...

i was doing the modeling of inverted pendulum attached to cart and pulley and also a servo motor attached with it.I divided transfer function in 3 parts i.e 1.Voltage and angular frequency of pulley 2.angular frequency of pulley and force on cart 3.Force on cart and angle of pendulum ...

its the laplace transform , give me intution based answer

Is this function realizable for every yes/no "why" should be provided? (s^2+1)/(s+1)

thanks brother that's what i was looking for...once again thanks for giving such a wonderful answer

but the body is rotating along its center of gravity. If the force is applied on cart, the cart will move in the forward direction and transfer the force to the rod in the direction of red arrow, and the body will rotate along its center of gravity. So body is rotating in counter clockwise...

i have problem with the equation encircled in red in the figure. I(theeta)''=sum of all torqes acting on the body. but they are taking torques in the negative direction why. It should be -VLsin+HLcos=I(theeta)''

whats is the different between kienetic energy and momentum.with examples . i know the mathemetical formulaies..... the things that i want to get are the concepts.Thanks in advance.

I know the mathematical terminolgies an expansion i want to know, if M is function of time why we can't use F=mv' because this formulie make sense that if a force is applied on body it will accelrate(i.e. its velocity will chnge) and "m" is the constan of propotionality, if mass is varying the...

Is invisibility really achieved? are we really able to bend lighth or its still a myth?

but why i have been reading this expression of force F=(m.v') since i was in school and we also read the reasons for the occurrence of this formulie and now the expression changes to F=(m.v)' if mass is the function of time these two formulais yields different results. If the second one...

220Vrms is enough to induce 2Vrms or 3Vrms upto 15 meter. And step down transformers have much higher voltages than 220Vrms. But i think transformers have magnetic fields only

If we have a mass function of time i.e M(t) then F=(m.v') or F=(m.v)' and why ? If we have a mass function of time i.e M(t) then F=(m.v') or F=(m.v)' and why ?