Hi, I am wondering the extra term I get, which is different from what is asked to prove in the hints, ie,
$$\int_{-\infty}^{\infty} -\phi^*(p_x) x \phi(p_x) dp_x$$
is equal to zero?
Homework Statement
Show that, for a general one-dimensional free-particle wave packet
$$\psi (x,t) = (2 \pi h)^{-1/2} \int_{-\infty}^{\infty} exp [i (p_x x - p_x^2 t / 2 m)/h] \phi (p_x) dp_x$$
the expectation value <x> of the position coordinate satisfies the equation
$$<x> = <x>_{t=t_0}...
Hi,
I am reading the Quantum Mechanics, 2nd edition by Bransden and Joachain. On page 777, the book gives an example of Dirac delta function.
$\delta_\epsilon (x) = \frac{\epsilon}{\pi(x^2 + \epsilon^2)}$
I am wondering how I can show $\lim_{x\to 0+} \int_{a}^{b} \delta_\epsilon (x) dx$...