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Thanks for the reply. I forgot to mention that a,b >0. So, as long as b is bounded, the analysis should work, right?

Hi, If I have ln{a} converging to ln{b}, can I claim that a converges to b? I would think yes, because ln is a monotonic function and we are always sure to get a unique value of ln for any argument 'a'. Is that reasoning correct? I am not able to prove it by the definition of...

I am sorry, I meant I want to get rid of \dot{a}^2. Is there any answer to solve this integral? I can have \dot{f} in the answer. Thanks,

How can I apply Leibniz rule of integration to solve the integral \int_0^t{f\left(t\right)\dot{a}^2\left(t\right)dt} I want to get rid of \dot{a}??