i observed i = k*ln(2) numerically, i cant use approximation, i need to show that exactly. trying to follow te comments here:
https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/4748040/let-k-in-mathbbn-show-that-there-is-i-in-mathbbn-s-t-left1-frac1?noredirect=1#comment10074764_4748040
i got stuck at...
did you notice that ##
i really can't understand why the last result is true, you are applying ##
\sqrt{k \cdot \log 2}
##
on both expressions inside the derivative brackets i.e. (before the derivative)? why is that true that the inequality will hold after the derivative?
As a follow up for : https://www.physicsforums.com/threads/let-k-n-show-that-there-is-i-n-s-t-1-1-k-i-1-2-k-i-1-4.1054669/
show that ## \alpha\left(k\right)\ :=\ \left(1-\tfrac{1}{k}\right)^{\ln\left(2\right)k}-\left(1-\tfrac{2}{k}\right)^{\ln\left(2\right)k} ## is decreasing for ##...
ok, only need to show now that
## \alpha\left(k\right)\ :=\ \left(1-\tfrac{1}{k}\right)^{\ln\left(2\right)k}-\left(1-\tfrac{2}{k}\right)^{\ln\left(2\right)k} ##
is decreasing for k>=3, i tried to show the first derivative non-positive but the expression i got is really complicated.
for k = 1 or 2 the solution is trivial, i tried online calculator and it seems the result is about i = k*ln(2), but i can not show exactly how, the expression after setting i = k*ln(2), and his first derivative is very complicated to deal with...
let ##k \in\mathbb{N},## Show that there is ##i\in\mathbb{N} ##s.t ##\ \left(1-\frac{1}{k}\right)^{i}-\left(1-\frac{2}{k}\right)^{i}\geq \frac{1}{4} ##
I tried to use Bernoulli's inequality and related inequality for the left and right expression but i the expression smaller than 1/4 for any i...