Recent content by Moonspex

So is it similar to "an infinitesimal change in x" but now it's an "infinitesimally small difference (ie, variation or difference) in x"?

Ok, so what does dx stand for then? It is again multiplied by Fx, giving ∂F/∂x · dx. Since it isn't a double derivative of F with respect to x (especially since ∂ =/= d), then what is it's meaning here?

The problem is that the Fx term implies ∂F/∂x and so on, whereas these individual partial derivative are then multiplied by the \deltax and so on terms - this is what confuses me. So is it a partial derivative multiplied by a small change?

I've come across a very ambiguous statement in my notes on implicit functions (part of the partial derivatives part of the course). I'll write out the preceding explanation but the problematic line is marked by * "Sometimes we can define a function z=z(x, y) only in implicit form, i.e...

Ah I see! I tend to forget simple steps like that which involve such simple identities. Thanks! (PS: That was a typo on my part)

Homework Statement Briefly, the question asks to prove how the interference of 2 electrons (travelling in opposite directions as 1-D waves) would affect the probability of finding each electron in free space. My issue has to do with the first step in the solution. Homework Equations...

Trying to figure out the relationship between c and the 1-power... (-1)n+1 · i/n = c-n Given that cn= (-1)n · i/n So, would this imply that c-n = cn · -i/n ?

Just figured it out a minute ago! It's frustrating when I know it's something so simple... thanks everyone!

So the dividend is just integrated normally; how does the divisor go from 2 to 4?

Ok, so the question is actually \int sin^{2}(x)dx Thanks to your help I got to \int sin^{2}(x)dx = \int 1/2 - cos(2\theta)/2 dx Now, the answer says this integration equals 1/2x - sin(2\theta)/4 + C My question now is how does the cos bit integrate to the sin bit?

Hello everyone! This is my first post here so pardon me if it's a little too simple... I just can't figure out where this equation came from (or rather how it got to that point): cos(2 theta) = 1 - 2sin^2(theta) Does it have something to do with the identity cos^2 + sin^2 = 1, and if so...