Solving the Mystery of cos(2 theta) = 1 - 2sin^2(theta)

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Hello everyone! This is my first post here so pardon me if it's a little too simple... I just can't figure out where this equation came from (or rather how it got to that point):

cos(2 theta) = 1 - 2sin^2(theta)

Does it have something to do with the identity cos^2 + sin^2 = 1, and if so, how does it apply? (I just started my first year at college and I find myself wondering how I got here!)
 
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I would say first consider cos(2\theta) = cos(\theta + \theta), then use the sum to product formula cos(\alpha + \beta) = (cos\alpha)(cos\beta) - (sin\alpha)(sin\beta). See if you can go from there.
 
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Remember that

e^{i \theta} = cos(\theta) + i \cdot sin(\theta)

So let's square both sides to get

e^{2i \theta} = cos^{2}(\theta) + 2i \cdot cos(\theta)sin(\theta) - sin^{2}(\theta)

But note also that

e^{2i \theta} = cos(2 \theta) + i \cdot sin(\theta)

So matching up the real parts we get:

cos(2 \theta) = cos^{2}(\theta) - sin^{2}(\theta)

and matching up the imaginary parts we get:

sin(2 \theta) = 2 sin(\theta)cos(\theta)
 
Ok, so the question is actually

\int sin^{2}(x)dx

Thanks to your help I got to

\int sin^{2}(x)dx = \int 1/2 - cos(2\theta)/2 dx

Now, the answer says this integration equals

1/2x - sin(2\theta)/4 + C

My question now is how does the cos bit integrate to the sin bit?
 
?? you should have learned that d(sin x)/dx= cos(x) and so \int cos(x) dx= sin(x)+ C before you start trying to integrate sin(2x)!
 
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So the dividend is just integrated normally; how does the divisor go from 2 to 4?
 
because \frac{d}{dx}\sin(2x)=2*\cos(2x) and so \int \cos (2x) dx = \frac{\sin(2x)}{2}+C

So you have an extra 2 in the denominator, hence it becomes 2x2 which is 4...
 
Just figured it out a minute ago! It's frustrating when I know it's something so simple... thanks everyone!
 
lol guys if his asking a basic question like this i don't think it requires integration
cos 2x = cos (x+x)
cos (x+x) = cos x . cos x - sin x . sin x
= cos^2 x - sin^2 x
using the identity cos^2 x + sin^2 x = 1
sin^2 x= 1-cos^2 x
cos^2 x +cos^2 x - 1 = cos 2x
2 cos^2 x -1=cos 2x
There no integration or w/e these guys used xD
 
  • #10
Please, a) Don't revive old threads as you did with your other post, and b), read the entire thread before commenting.
 
  • #11
cos(A+B)=cosA \ cosB - sinA \ sinB

so

cos2\theta=cos(\theta+\theta)

=cos\theta cos\theta-sin\theta sin\theta

=cos^2\theta-sin^2\theta

remember that:

sin^2\theta+cos^2\theta=1


for sin^2\theta=1-cos^2\theta:


cos2\theta=cos^2\theta-sin^2\theta

cos2\theta=cos^2\theta-(1-cos^2\theta)

cos2\theta=cos^2\theta-1+cos^2\theta

cos2\theta=2cos^2\theta-1

cos2\theta+1=2cos^2\theta

cos^2\theta=\frac{cos2\theta+1}{2}


for cos^2\theta=1-sin^2\theta:


cos2\theta=cos^2\theta-sin^2\theta

cos2\theta=(1-sin^2\theta)-sin^2\theta

cos2\theta=1-2sin^2\theta

2sin^2\theta=1-cos2\theta

sin^2\theta=\frac{1-cos2\theta}{2}

So

\int \ sin^2x \ dx

=\int \ \frac{1-cos2x}{2} \ dx

=\frac{1}{2}\int \ 1-cos2x \ dx

let u=2x, then \frac{du}{dx}=2, du=2 \ dx

So

\frac{1}{2} \int \ 1-cos2x \ dx

=\frac{1}{2} \ \frac{1}{2} \int \ (1-cos2x)(2 \ dx)

=\frac{1}{2} \ \frac{1}{2} \int \ (1-cos \ u) \ du

=\frac{1}{4} \ \int \ (1-cos \ u) \ du

=\frac{1}{4} (u-sin \ u) + C

=\frac{1}{4} (2x-sin \ 2x) + C

:confused:
 
  • #12
That's correct, I don't see the problem.
 
  • #13
If you are unsure, differentiate your answer...
 
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