Recent content by nalkapo

Follow up question Thanks pasmith, Yeah, by using definition of Riemann integration rule I already proved that the inequality is wrong. I tried to find a domain in which the inequality holds; however, there is no such domain. How about we multiply only left-hand side with τ (tau)? Will this...

I am struggling with this question. I need a different perspective. Any recommendation is appreciated. Please click on the attached Thumbnail.

I am trying to plot a function of two variables but it will be piecewise: f[x_, y_] := {x^2/(x^2 + y^2),-1<=x<=1,-1<=y<=1} and {0, otherwise} How can I write these commands? It doesn't work... Please help...

do you think it is possible that for different values of n, i can use 'Manipulate' command and plot an interactive manipulation? for example; n from 0 to 30... i tried but it didnt work... Is there anyone who can help, please? i have a function and a polynomial; f[x]=Piecewise[{{x...

Thanks phyzguy, also i sent an email to mathematica support and they corrected my commands. they just added: AxesOrigin->{0,0} and it worked.

Mathematica-My polynomial's graph is different in two plots!? Please help... In mathematica I used the same polynomial and plotted two times in different place. but in these graphs, my polynomial looks different. Is there anyone who knows the problem? --> mathematica notebook file is...

thanks radou for the answer, let me make my question more clear: single variable function is on the interval [0,1]. if I prove this for two variables, then what the interval will be? will it be an interval or an area like a rectengular [a,b]x[c,d]? I thought the endpoints should be...

Hello everybody, I am studying a theorem and I want to convert a function of one variable into a function of two variables. At first steps I am really confused and don't know what to do. Can you help me with this step: function with one variable: given; f(x), f(0)=f(1)=0 on...

Thanks Bill, I figured it out. I needed to plot in coordinate system, R^2. actually i didn't give all the details. i tried to use two variables to plot two functions in R^2 but it is not possible. I decreased to one variable and problem was solved. Thanks for help. at least I got some idea...

can anyone help me with this question in mathematica. please look at the link: https://www.physicsforums.com/showthread.php?t=434501 thanks

can anyone help me with this question? please look at link... https://www.physicsforums.com/showthread.php?t=434501 thanks

I want to plot this polynomial: Q10[x_] := c* (1 - (t - x)^2)^10 I defined variable 't' in f(t) and 'x' in the polynomial Q10[x]. how can I plot this polynomials with variebles x and t? the range-interval will be (for both x and t): [0,1]. can you write the code please... Thanks... Edit...

thanks mathman, now i think i got the idea...

f is any continuous function f(x) on an interval [a,b] . in the proof they chose [0,1] . they want to prove that for any continuous function, there is a polynomial that can be approximated to this function as much as desired. i couldn't understand the change between those function.

I am currently studying Stone–Weierstrass approximation theorem, and some parts really confuse me. basically, the Weierstrass approximation theorem states that every continuous function defined on an interval [a,b] can be uniformly approximated as closely as desired by a polynomial function...