This is precisely what I don't follow. (0,+\infty)\cong\mathbb{R} as smooth manifolds and, using a diffeomorphism such as \varphi:\mathbb{R}\to(0,+\infty),~t\mapsto e^t, (\mathbb{R},\phi^*\mathrm{g})\cong((0,+\infty),\mathrm{g}) as Riemannian manifolds. Don't isometric manifolds have isomorphic...