hmmm yeah my friend posed this proof to me and asked me to try and find a good solution to it if i could, to be honest i have idea! its possible that i just lack the algebra to do so
A linear transformation F is said to be one-to-one if it satisfies the following condition: if F(u) = F(v) then u = v. Prove that F is one-to-one if and only if Ker(F) = {0}.
Homework Statement
hi, I am really stuck on this question:
Two masses m and M, M>m are joined by a massless inelastic string and suspended from a pulley of radius R and moment of inertia I. the pulley rotates about its centre freely with no friction. The system starts at t=0 from rest...