hi kakarukeys.
To prove it, first note that the set represented by a^{2}-b^{2}-b^{2}-c^{2}=1, a>1 is in fact a subset of A^2-B^2-C^2-D^2>0, A>0. Then what we need to prove becomes
Prove Aa+Bb+Cc+Dd>0, where (A, B, C, D) and (a, b, c, d) both satisfies,
h^2-i^2-j^2-k^2>0, h>0...