Prove or disprove this inequality

  • Thread starter Thread starter kakarukeys
  • Start date Start date
  • Tags Tags
    Inequality
AI Thread Summary
The discussion revolves around proving or disproving the inequality Aa + Bb + Cc + Dd > 0, given the conditions a^2 - b^2 - c^2 - d^2 > 0 and A^2 - B^2 - C^2 - D^2 = 1. Participants explore various mathematical approaches, including Lagrange Multipliers and geometric interpretations in 2D and 3D. The Cauchy-Schwarz inequality is referenced as a potential method to establish the relationship between the variables. Despite attempts to find a counter-example or a straightforward proof, the conclusion remains elusive, highlighting the complexity of the problem. The conversation emphasizes the challenge of proving inequalities, even when they seem intuitively obvious.
kakarukeys
Messages
187
Reaction score
0
:confused:
a^2 - b^2 - c^2 - d^2 > 0
A^2 - B^2 - C^2 - D^2 = 1
A > 1
a > 0
Prove or disprove Aa + Bb + Cc + Dd > 0

after 3 days of trying I give up
can anyone give a clue?
 
Physics news on Phys.org
what I have done:
I used (a + b)^2 = a^2 + b^2 + 2ab, but it leads to nothing.
I have tried Lagrange Multipliers, but the only extremum is a saddle point.
 
trying to disprove it
I found no counter-example.
 
(a+A)^2 + (b+B)^2 + (c+C)^2 + (d+D)^2 > 0

-- AI
 
I can't see.
then?
 
Are b,c,d >0 and B,C,D>1 ?? if so, no need to prove anything since it is obvious.
If not, I think we can't say the given formula >0 or <0
You can try subsitute some values of b,c,d to guess a, then values for B,C,D to calculate A, you will see it.

Am I incorrect ?
 
Last edited:
Let me try to give some motivation about the inequaility.

Consider the equivalent problem in 2D. That is,
a^{2}-b^{2}&gt;0, a&gt;1
A^2-B^2=1, A&gt;1
Prove or disprove aA+bB&gt;0
In 2D, the region represented by the first equation is like a "quadrant" rotated by 45 degrees. (Try to plot it.) The set represented by the second equation is one component of a hyperbola included in the first region. Note that Aa+Bb is just the usual *dot product* between vector (a, b) and (A, B). Can you see why the inequality holds in the case?

Try to do the problem for 3D and then generalise it.
 
Wow, my gal bit me .:redface:
 
To Wong,

The angle between the vectors is always less than 90?
I can see it in 2D and 3D, but not in 4D, but how to write a proof?
 
  • #10
hi kakarukeys.

To prove it, first note that the set represented by a^{2}-b^{2}-b^{2}-c^{2}=1, a&gt;1 is in fact a subset of A^2-B^2-C^2-D^2&gt;0, A&gt;0. Then what we need to prove becomes
Prove Aa+Bb+Cc+Dd&gt;0, where (A, B, C, D) and (a, b, c, d) both satisfies,
h^2-i^2-j^2-k^2&gt;0, h&gt;0
A^2&gt;B^2+C^2+D^2
A&gt;(B^2+C^2+D^2)^{\frac{1}{2}}
Similarly,
a&gt;(b^2+c^2+d^2)^{\frac{1}{2}}
Put those expression into Aa+Bb+Cc+Dd, does it remind you of some inequality?
This can be generalised to any dimensions.

Somtimes it can be quite difficult to think of a proof for inequalities, even though it is quite trivial geometrically.
 
  • #11
Intuitive guide, I have spotted the 'subset' clue.
but I still can't see the solution.

Aa &gt; \sqrt{B^2 + C^2 + D^2}\sqrt{b^2 + c^2 + d^2} \geq Bb + Cc + Dd
(Cauchy-Schwarz inequality)

And so Aa - Bb - Cc - Dd &gt; 0
that's not we want.

Note Bb + Cc + Dd can be negative.
 
  • #12
ok COOL
Aa &gt; \sqrt{B^2 + C^2 + D^2}\sqrt{b^2 + c^2 + d^2} = \sqrt{(-B)^2 + (-C)^2 + (-D)^2}\sqrt{b^2 + c^2 + d^2}<br /> \geq - Bb - Cc - Dd
 
  • #13
Thumbs up!
 
  • #14
Interesting indeed!
I was lost with my initial thoughts !
Bravo!

-- AI
 
Back
Top