espen180 said:
I re-read your referenced post. I seems that the equation you arrived at is the acceleration measured by an observer at infinity, while the one I arrived at is for the acceleration measured by a local stationary observer.
Therefore, unless I misread your post, our equations differ by a factor of \sqrt{1-\frac{2GM}{rc^2}}.
I'll post my derivation:
Starting with the general case
\frac{\text{d}^2r}{\text{d}\tau^2}+c^2\left(\frac{r_s}{2r^2}-\frac{r_s^2}{2r^3}\right)\left(\frac{\text{d}t}{\text{d}\tau}\right)^2-\left(\frac{r_s}{2\left(1-\frac{r_s}{r}\right)r^2}\right)\left(\frac{\text{d}r}{\text{d}\tau}\right)^2-\left(r-r_s\right)\left(\frac{\text{d}\theta}{\text{d}\tau}\right)^2-\left(r-r_s\right)\sin^2\theta\left(\frac{\text{d}\phi}{\text{d}\tau}\right)^2=0
impose {dr}=d\phi=d\theta=0 to obtain
\frac{\text{d}^2r}{\text{d}\tau^2}+c^2\left(\frac{r_s}{2r^2}-\frac{r_s^2}{2r^3}\right)\left(\frac{\text{d}t}{\text{d}\tau}\right)^2=0
Now I argue that since v=0 initially, and the particle and observer are per assumption at the same location in space-time, d\tau=dt, giving the equation in #50.
You are making the assumption that d\tau=dt when the particle is stationary in the metric but it easy to show that is not correct.
Start with the full Schwarzschild metric:
c^2 d\tau^2 = (1-r_s/r)c^2 dt^2 - \frac{1}{(1-r_s/r)} dr^2 - r^2 d\theta^2 -r^2 \sin^2 (\theta) d\phi^2
Impose dr=d\phi=d\theta=0 to obtain:
c^2 d\tau^2 = (1-r_s/r)c^2 dt^2
d\tau = dt \sqrt{1-r_s/r}
(Not d\tau=dt)
In the Schwarzschild metric dt is always the time measured by the observer at infinity.
The time (dt') measured by a stationary local observer at r is:
dt ' = dt \sqrt{1-r_s/r}
and if the particle is stationary at r, then d\tau = dt'
Now let's take your final equation:
\frac{\text{d}^2r}{\text{d}\tau^2}+c^2\left(\frac{r_s}{2r^2}-\frac{r_s^2}{2r^3}\right)\left(\frac{\text{d}t}{\text{d}\tau}\right)^2=0
and use the correct value of (dt/d\tau)^2 so that:
\frac{\text{d}^2r}{\text{d}\tau^2}+c^2\left(\frac{r_s}{2r^2}-\frac{r_s^2}{2r^3}\right)\frac{1}{(1-r_s/r)} = 0
\frac{\text{d}^2r}{\text{d}\tau^2} = -c^2\left(\frac{r_s}{2r^2}-\frac{r_s^2}{2r^3}\right)\frac{1}{(1-r_s/r)}
\frac{\text{d}^2r}{\text{d}\tau^2} = -c^2 \frac{r_s}{2r^2}\left(1-\frac{r_s}{r}\right)\frac{1}{(1-r_s/r)}
\frac{\text{d}^2r}{\text{d}\tau^2} = -c^2 \frac{r_s}{2r^2}
\frac{\text{d}^2r}{\text{d}\tau^2} = -\frac{GM}{r^2}
This is the acceleration in terms of the proper time of the particle versus coordinate distance. (See the first equation of this mathpages page
http://www.mathpages.com/rr/s6-07/6-07.htm).
The equation you gave in the earlier post:
\frac{\text{d}^2r}{\text{d}t^2}=-\left(\frac{GM}{r^2}-\frac{2G^2M^2}{r^3c^2}\right) = -\frac{GM}{r^2}\left(1 -\frac{GM}{r c^2} \right)
is the acceleration in terms of coordinate time versus coordinate distance (both measured by the observer at infinity).
Also see this very technical derivation by Dalespam (post #155)
https://www.physicsforums.com/showthread.php?t=402135&page=10