Orbital velocities in the Schwartzschild geometry

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The discussion revolves around calculating the velocity of a particle in a circular orbit around a black hole using the tensor formulation of General Relativity (GR) and the Schwarzschild geometry. The original poster encounters a zero velocity result when applying the geodesic equations, raising concerns about potential miscalculations or misunderstandings. Participants point out a sign error in the equations and emphasize the importance of correctly interpreting the assumptions made, particularly regarding fixed radial coordinates. The conversation highlights the need for clarity in defining orbital velocity and its relationship to angular velocity in the context of GR, ultimately leading to the conclusion that the equations derived must accurately reflect the dynamics of circular motion in a relativistic framework.
  • #121
starthaus said:
You mean that you don't understand the general solution at post 56? Why don'y you say so? I can explain it to you.

I understand the solution given by Espen in https://www.physicsforums.com/showpost.php?p=2769019&postcount=56"

espen180 said:
Starting with the general case

\frac{\text{d}^2r}{\text{d}\tau^2}+c^2\left(\frac{r_s}{2r^2}-\frac{r_s^2}{2r^3}\right)\left(\frac{\text{d}t}{\text{d}\tau}\right)^2-\left(\frac{r_s}{2\left(1-\frac{r_s}{r}\right)r^2}\right)\left(\frac{\text{d}r}{\text{d}\tau}\right)^2-\left(r-r_s\right)\left(\frac{\text{d}\theta}{\text{d}\tau}\right)^2-\left(r-r_s\right)\sin^2\theta\left(\frac{\text{d}\phi}{\text{d}\tau}\right)^2=0


I am dubious about your version in https://www.physicsforums.com/showpost.php?p=2768235&postcount=53"

starthaus said:
-d/ds(1/\alpha*2dr/ds)-(2m/r^2(dt/ds)^2-d/dr(1/\alpha)(dr/ds)^2-2r(d\phi/ds)^2)=0
 
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  • #122
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  • #123
starthaus said:
You need to learn euler-lagrange method and differential equations. The solution is identical with the one produced by the geodesic equations.

Let's see if the solutions are the same. Start with the solution given by Espen:
espen180 said:
\frac{\text{d}^2r}{\text{d}\tau^2}+c^2\left(\frac{r_s}{2r^2}-\frac{r_s^2}{2r^3}\right)\left(\frac{\text{d}t}{\text{d}\tau}\right)^2-\left(\frac{r_s}{2\left(1-\frac{r_s}{r}\right)r^2}\right)\left(\frac{\text{d}r}{\text{d}\tau}\right)^2-\left(r-r_s\right)\left(\frac{\text{d}\theta}{\text{d}\tau}\right)^2-\left(r-r_s\right)\sin^2\theta\left(\frac{\text{d}\phi}{\text{d}\tau}\right)^2=0


Using notation r_s= 2m, c=1, d\tau = ds, \alpha = (1-2m/r) and conditions \theta =0 and d\theta =0 to put Espen's solution in the same format as your equation then the following is obtained:

d^2r/ds^2 + m\alpha/ r^2 (dt/ds)^2 - m/(\alpha r^2)(dr/ds)^2 - r\alpha (d\phi/ds)^2 = 0

-2/\alpha*d^2r/ds^2 -( 2m/ r^2 (dt/ds)^2 - 2m/(\alpha^2 r^2)(dr/ds)^2 - 2r (d\phi/ds)^2) = 0

-2/\alpha*d/ds(dr/ds) -( 2m/ r^2 (dt/ds)^2 - d/dr(1/\alpha)(dr/ds)^2 - 2r (d\phi/ds)^2) = C

Contrast to your equation:
starthaus said:
-d/ds(1/\alpha*2dr/ds)-(2m/r^2(dt/ds)^2-d/dr(1/\alpha)(dr/ds)^2-2r(d\phi/ds)^2)=0

As a calculus expert you should know

-2/\alpha*d/ds(dr/ds) \ne -d/ds(1/\alpha*2dr/ds)

so your solution is in error.
 
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  • #124
kev said:
Let's see if the solutions are the same.


They are the same, this is a known theorem . You need to study.
 
  • #125
Even when you have a theorem that tells you that two solutions should be the same it is often wise to compare them to see if you made a mistake in one or the other.
 
  • #126
starthaus said:
If you insist on hacking the metric by putting \frac{dr}{ds}=0 by hand as you've been doing, then, by virtue of elementary calculus, you'd get \frac{d^2r}{ds^2}=0.


This is the acceleration equation given by you (after I fixed a major problem with it):

-2/\alpha*d^2r/ds^2 -( 2m/ r^2 (dt/ds)^2 - 2m/(\alpha^2 r^2)(dr/ds)^2 - 2r (d\phi/ds)^2) = 0

With some basic algebra and substitutions (but no assumption of dr/ds=0) this simplifies to:

\frac{d}{ds}(dr/ds) = -\frac{m}{r^2} + \alpha r \left(\frac{d\phi}{ds}\right)^2

When d\phi^2/ds^2 = 0 and dr=0 the equation becomes:

\frac{d}{ds}(0/ds) = -\frac{m}{r^2}

so your claim that d/ds (dr/ds) must equal zero when dr/ds=0 is false.

What you are missing is that although the first derivative of zero is zero, the second derivative is not necessarily zero.

This is explained by Dr math like this:
Just like you can have a function whose y-value is 0, but whose slope
is not, you can have a function whose slope is 0 but whose slope is
constantly changing and therefore never has a double-derivative of 0.

Take this example:

f(x) = x^2
f'(x) = 2x
f''(x) = 2

You'll notice here that the derivative is 0 at x = 0, but the double-
derivative is always 2, which means that the slope is always increasing.

See http://mathforum.org/library/drmath/view/65095.html for a full explanation.

No need to thank me for the free calculus lesson :wink:
 
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  • #127
DaleSpam said:
Even when you have a theorem that tells you that two solutions should be the same it is often wise to compare them to see if you made a mistake in one or the other.

kev's counterproof is false
 
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  • #128
kev said:
This is the acceleration equation given by you (after I fixed a major problem with it):

-2/\alpha*d^2r/ds^2 -( 2m/ r^2 (dt/ds)^2 - 2m/(\alpha^2 r^2)(dr/ds)^2 - 2r (d\phi/ds)^2) = 0

With some basic algebra and substitutions (but no assumption of dr/ds=0) this simplifies to:

\frac{d}{ds}(dr/ds) = -\frac{m}{r^2} + \alpha r \left(\frac{d\phi}{ds}\right)^2

Umm, wrong.

When d\phi^2/ds^2 = 0 and dr=0 the equation becomes:

\frac{d}{ds}(0/ds) = -\frac{m}{r^2}

Also wrong.Try again. If yyou do it right, you should get:

\frac{d^2r}{ds^2}=-\frac{m}{r^2}

If you still can't get it right, feel free to look at the derivation I put in my blog about a month ago.
 
  • #129
starthaus said:
Also wrong.Try again. If yyou do it right, you should get:

\frac{d^2r}{ds^2}=-\frac{m}{r^2}

This is only true for d\phi/ds =0. I thought you were the guy who thinks special cases are wrong and the more generalised solution (which I gave) is the more correct solution? Must have been thinking of someone else...
 
  • #130
starthaus said:
Umm, no. If you do your algebra correctly, you should get

d^2r/ds^2 + m\alpha/ r^3 (dt/ds)^2 - ...

You need to redo all your "calculations". If you do them right, you'll find out that the geodesic method produces the same answers as the lagrangian one. In the process , you might want to check espen180's equation as a starting point, I can't vouch for it being correct. I know that my equation is correct.

I have checked and d^2r/ds^2 + m\alpha/ r^3 (dt/ds)^2 - ... is wrong.

You really need to work on your basic algebra skills.
 
  • #131
starthaus said:
You might want to check your signs , you got them pretty screwed up.

They are correct. You need to pay close attention to the brackets I inserted.
 
  • #132
starthaus said:
If you don't know how differential equations describe the equations of motion, that's ok.

I was talking about something else and you unfortunately AGAIN couldn’t get the point as you never can when it comes to creating "Physical mold" of basic ODEs. Your problem is that you don't understand basic calculus and this got exposed itself to me after I asked you a simple question in https://www.physicsforums.com/showpost.php?p=2742039&postcount=306") about 300 posts earlier was in a void attempt at responding to me ignored by you twice in that thread.

If you want to learn, then it is not necessary to add your name to the list of trollers, wait a little for espen180 to use the tools I gave him and you'll learn.

Unfortunately you have nothing to teach me!

No, I'm not missing anything, I am just pointing out that several of you are blissfully basking in the same elementary mistake. Instead of trolling, can you try deriving the equation of motion? It is really simple, you know.

You're not missing because you can't probably see clearly. Yeah I know and of course I'm going to show which "brother" has been trolling all along since the beginning of this thread.

I assume that the observer who measures the orbital speed of a particle near a gravitating body is hovering so that his 4-velocity is given by

u^a=(\gamma_g,0,0,0),

where \gamma_g=\frac{1}{\sqrt{1-2m/r}}. The orbiting particle itself has the following 4-velocity:

u_a=(E,0,0,L),

with E being the conserved energy of particle per unit mass and L is the orbital angular momentum of the particle per unit mass, again. But what are the precise expressions corresponding to each of these quantities? From the Newtonian theory of gravitation, we remember that the angular momentum per unit mass of a particle in an orbit at r is the simple equation

L=(mr)^{1/2},

where m stands for the gravitating body's mass. Now for the Schwarzschild spacetime, one from the Euler-Lagrange equations would get:

L=r^2\dot{\phi},

for a particle in a circular orbit at r and again with a unit mass. Here the over-dot represents differentiation wrt the parameter of geodesics, e.g. s. For a circular motion, dr/ds=0, and considering motion taking place in the plane for which \theta=\pi/2 so that the metric

ds^2=(1-2m/r)dt^2-1/(1-2m/r)dr^2-r^2(d\theta^2+\sin^2(\theta)d\phi^2)

gives

1=(1-2m/r)\dot{t}^2-r^2d\dot{\phi}^2.

On the other hand, from the first Euler-Lagrange equation and dr/ds=0, it is obvious that

\ddot{t}=0;

thus yielding

\dot{t}=k=const.*

The second of Euler-Lagrange equations (the equation for the radial component) with the same assumptions would lead to the following expression for \dot{\phi} (which is very incorrectly given a name like "proper angular velocity" or stuff like that by non-experts):

\dot{\phi}^2=\frac{m}{r^3}k^2.**

Introducing * and ** into the relationship derived from the Schwarzschild metric gives

1=(1-\frac{2m}{r})k^2-\frac{m}{r}k^2\rightarrow
k^2=\frac{1}{1-3m/r}.

Now the expression for L reads

L=\sqrt{\frac{mr}{1-3m/r}}.

The first Euler-Lagrange equation,

\frac{d}{ds}[(1-2m/r)\dot{t}]=0

if integrated would have teh following simple solution:

E=\frac{1-2m/r}{\sqrt{1-3m/r}}=\frac{1}{\gamma_g^2\sqrt{1-3m/r}}=const.

To wit, the energy of the particle is a conserved quantity. Now what about the energy per unit mass of particle with respect to the hovering observer? Let such energy be denoted by\gamma (with c=1), then projecting the 4-momentum of the particle onto the 4-velocity of the observer gives

\gamma=u^au_a={E}\gamma_g.

Recall that the theory of special relativity portrays \gamma=1/\sqrt{1-v^2} to hold, when c=1, between any two inertial frames. So using the equation for E above and solving this for the orbital velocity v yields

v=(m/r)^{1/2}\gamma_g.

And we are done. Clearly, putting r=3m leads to v=1=c which stands for the orbital speed of photons.

It is not necessary to resort to your hacks about "momentary" and "instantaneous" motion. If you knew how, you could have derived the general equation of motion, applicable for any t. How about you tried that instead on spending so much energy in ranting? Feel free to use the hints that I gave out in this thread.

How about you now to think about the idea that says "if you don't know what is meant by something, then stop being nonsense when answering?” You're not supposed to give us your nonsense prolongated and boring hints that are much of a pain to a student with a really basic knowledge of calculus and algebra. In the meanwhile, try to learn something about the difference between "proper" and "coordinate" quantities in GR! You can use my post over PF on this topic.

AB
 
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  • #133
Altabeh said:
I was talking about something else and you unfortunately AGAIN couldn’t get the point as you never can when it comes to creating "Physical mold" of basic ODEs. Your problem is that you don't understand basic calculus and this got exposed itself to me after I asked you a simple question in https://www.physicsforums.com/showpost.php?p=2742039&postcount=306") about 300 posts earlier was in a void attempt at responding to me ignored by you twice in that thread.
Unfortunately you have nothing to teach me!
You're not missing because you can't probably see clearly. Yeah I know and of course I'm going to show which "brother" has been trolling all along since the beginning of this thread.

I assume that the observer who measures the orbital speed of a particle near a gravitating body is hovering so that his 4-velocity is given by

u^a=(\gamma_g,0,0,0),

where \gamma_g=\frac{1}{\sqrt{1-2m/r}}. The orbiting particle itself has the following 4-velocity:

u_a=(E,0,0,L),

with E being the conserved energy of particle per unit mass and L is the orbital angular momentum of the particle per unit mass, again. But what are the precise expressions corresponding to each of these quantities? From the Newtonian theory of gravitation, we remember that the angular momentum per unit mass of a particle in an orbit at r is the simple equation

L=(mr)^{1/2},

where m stands for the gravitating body's mass. Now for the Schwarzschild spacetime, one from the Euler-Lagrange equations would get:

L=r^2\dot{\phi},

for a particle in a circular orbit at r and again with a unit mass. Here the over-dot represents differentiation wrt the parameter of geodesics, e.g. s. For a circular motion, dr/ds=0, and considering motion taking place in the plane for which \theta=\pi/2 so that the metric

ds^2=(1-2m/r)dt^2-1/(1-2m/r)dr^2-r^2(d\theta^2+\sin^2(\theta)d\phi^2)

gives

1=(1-2m/r)\dot{t}^2-r^2d\dot{\phi}^2.

...which is post 53. More correctly, it produces the Lagrangian
L=(1-2m/r)\dot{t}^2-r^2d\dot{\phi}^2.
Actually, the solution given in post 53 includes the solution for circular orbits as a particular case. Besides , it is much shorter.You are a few days late.
 
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  • #134
starthaus said:
...which is post 53. Actually, the solution given in post 53 includes the solution for circular orbits as a particular case.You are a few days late.

This is one other nonsense you're making. Actually the point is that you don't read the whole of posts and ignore parts that sound unfamiliar to your probably "limited" skills in GR and this gives rise to many tensions in all threads you're involved in. Now I take your last post as "Yes, I now know I'm not the one who can do basic calculations in GR!" Haha!

AB
 
  • #135
Altabeh said:
This is one other nonsense you're making. Actually the point is that you don't read the whole of posts and ignore parts that sound unfamiliar to your probably "limited" skills in GR and this gives rise to many tensions in all threads you're involved in. Now I take your last post as "Yes, I now know I'm not the one who can do basic calculations in GR!" Haha!

AB

You mean that you don't recognize the Euler-Lagrange equations for arbitrary orbits? You should be familiar with the formalism, it is pretty simple.
Once you understand it, you can follow how I derived the solution for circular orbits in much fewer equations.
Same situation for radial motion. I hope you understood the solution from my blog.
 
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  • #136
kev said:
Let's see if the solutions are the same. Start with the solution given by Espen:
Using notation r_s= 2m, c=1, d\tau = ds, \alpha = (1-2m/r) and conditions \theta =0 and d\theta =0 to put Espen's solution in the same format as your equation then the following is obtained:

d^2r/ds^2 + m\alpha/ r^2 (dt/ds)^2 - m/(\alpha r^2)(dr/ds)^2 - r\alpha (d\phi/ds)^2 = 0

-2/\alpha*d^2r/ds^2 -( 2m/ r^2 (dt/ds)^2 - 2m/(\alpha^2 r^2)(dr/ds)^2 - 2r (d\phi/ds)^2) = 0

If you calculate the lagrangian expression carefully, you should be getting exactly d^2r/ds^2 + m\alpha/ r^2 (dt/ds)^2 - m/(\alpha r^2)(dr/ds)^2 - r\alpha (d\phi/ds)^2 = 0

i.e. the same thing as the geodesic expression. Hint:

\frac{d}{ds}(\frac{2/\alpha}{dr/ds})=\frac{2}{\alpha^2}(\alpha\frac{d^2r}{ds^2}-(dr/ds)^2\frac{d\alpha}{dr})A nice consequence of the above general equation is that you can derive the equations of motion for

-circular orbits (see post 53)

-radial motion by making \frac{d\phi}{ds}=0d^2r/ds^2 + m\alpha/ r^2 (dt/ds)^2 - m/(\alpha r^2)(dr/ds)^2 = 0
 
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  • #137
starthaus said:
You mean that you don't recognize the Euler-Lagrange equations for arbitrary orbits?

Actually the problem is that I can't see your "virtual" (maybe imaginary) derivation of the formula of velocity of particles orbiting around a gravitating body from the perspective of a hovering observer other than just a "play-with-Euler-Lagrange-Equations" game at a very basic and incomplete level.

You should be familiar with the formalism, it is pretty simple.

What formalism? The more basic one I showed to you?

Once you understand it, you can follow how to get the solution for circular orbits in much fewer equations.
Same situation for radial motion.

You better start with basic and then go to hard. That is better for you and other students at your level!

AB
 
  • #138
Altabeh said:
Actually the problem is that I can't see your "virtual" (maybe imaginary) derivation of the formula of velocity of particles orbiting around a gravitating body from the perspective of a hovering observer other than just a "play-with-Euler-Lagrange-Equations" game at a very basic and incomplete level.

It is not my fault that you can't follow basic equations. Give it some time, it will come to you.
What formalism? The more basic one I showed to you?

Yes, it is "more basic", it is a bastardization of the one showed in post 53.
You better start with basic and then go to hard.

No need to, I started with the most general. I left the basics for you to rediscover. Unfortunately, you are a few days late.
 
  • #139
Altabeh said:
for a particle in a circular orbit at r and again with a unit mass. Here the over-dot represents differentiation wrt the parameter of geodesics, e.g. s. For a circular motion, dr/ds=0, and considering motion taking place in the plane for which \theta=\pi/2 so that the metric

ds^2=(1-2m/r)dt^2-1/(1-2m/r)dr^2-r^2(d\theta^2+\sin^2(\theta)d\phi^2)

gives

1=(1-2m/r)\dot{t}^2-r^2d\dot{\phi}^2.

You mean L=(1-2m/r)\dot{t}^2-r^2\dot{\phi}^2?
Congratulations, you have rediscovered post 2.
On the other hand, from the first Euler-Lagrange equation and dr/ds=0, it is obvious that

\ddot{t}=0;

thus yielding

\dot{t}=k=const.*

You rediscovered post 6. You are on the right track.

The second of Euler-Lagrange equations (the equation for the radial component) with the same assumptions would lead to the following expression for \dot{\phi} (which is very incorrectly given a name like "proper angular velocity" or stuff like that by non-experts):

\dot{\phi}^2=\frac{m}{r^3}k^2.**

Not very useful . A much more useful one is:

\omega=\frac{d\phi}{dt}=\sqrt{\frac{m}{r^3}}

So, the coordinate speed is:

v_c=r\frac{d\phi}{dt}=\sqrt{\frac{m}{r}}

and the proper speed is:

v_p=r\frac{d\phi}{d\tau}=r\frac{d\phi}{dt}\frac{dt}{d\tau}=\sqrt{\frac{m}{r}}*1/\sqrt{1-2m/r}

k^2=\frac{1}{1-3m/r}.

...and you rediscovered the formula already derived at the end of post 53.
 
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  • #140
starthaus said:
It is not my fault that you can't follow basic equations. Give it some time, it will come to you.

And it's not my fault that you can't recognize basic special relativity and difference between proper and coordinate and finally how playing with equations would lead to a completely algebraically proven "formula"; not arrangement of terms and leaving dr/ds unidentified so as to call the equation "general"! Haha!

Yes, it is "more basic", it is a bastardization of the one showed in post 53.

Which one? hehe!

No need to, I started with the most general. I left the basics for you to rediscover. Unfortunately, you are a few days late.

Actually you even didn't discover the "basics" so leave alone the general because your derivation is nothing but playing with a bunch of unidentified terms and stuff that can never be identified if not reduced to my formula! Besides, I suppose the students like you unable to deal with difficult material so I start giving primary lessens by making you get involved with basics. How can I teach a student that doesn't know the difference between proper and coordinate more complicated issues?

AB
 
  • #141
starthaus said:
You mean L=(1-2m/r)\dot{t}^2-r^2\dot{\phi}^2?
Congratulations, you have rediscovered post 2.




You rediscovered post 6. You are on the right track.

What about the rest and most important part? Hahaaa!


AB
 
  • #142
Altabeh said:
And it's not my fault that you can't recognize basic special relativity and difference between proper and coordinate and finally how playing with equations would lead to a completely algebraically proven "formula"; not arrangement of terms and leaving dr/ds unidentified so as to call the equation "general"! Haha!

If your complaint about my derivations is that I call \frac{d^2r}{d\tau^2} proper acceleration, then so be it. I can live with that.
 
  • #143
Altabeh said:
What about the rest and most important part? Hahaaa!AB

Yes, you managed to get the same results I got several days before you. Good job.
 
  • #144
starthaus said:
If your complaint about my derivations is that I call \frac{d^2r}{d\tau^2} proper acceleration, then so be it. I can live with that.

Come on! You know that it's wrong and living with wrong will make you believe in wrong, of course! You can't get away with it!

Yes, you managed to get the same results I got several days before you. Good job.

I don't see the result I gave earlier in this page in any of your posts so don't attempt to attach my "formula" to your nonsense equations. Period.

AB
 
  • #145
Altabeh said:
I don't see the result I gave earlier in this page in any of your posts so don't attempt to attach my "formula" to your nonsense equations. Period.

AB

Not my problem that you can only read your own posts.
 
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  • #146
I was certain all along that dr/dt=0 does not imply that d^2r/dt^2=0 but I did not know how to prove it until I came across this article http://mathforum.org/library/drmath/view/65095.html in Dr math. Seeing as how Starhaus has not acknowledged his mistake I will assume he still does not get it and will elaborate on it.

f(x) = x^2
f'(x) = 2x
f''(x) = 2

When x=0:

f(x=0) = 0
f'(x=0) = 0
f''(x=0) = 2 ... Ta da! ... Non-zero!

Quite a simple proof. You should be able to get it now surely?
 
  • #147
kev said:
I was certain all along that dr/dt=0 does not imply that d^2r/dt^2=0 but I did not know how to prove it until I came across this article http://mathforum.org/library/drmath/view/65095.html in Dr math. Seeing as how Starhaus has not acknowledged his mistake I will assume he still does not get it and will elaborate on it.

I get it all right. It is you who doesn't.
f(x) = x^2
f'(x) = 2x
f''(x) = 2

When x=0:

f(x=0) = 0
f'(x=0) = 0
f''(x=0) = 2 ... Ta da! ... Non-zero!

Quite a simple proof. You should be able to get it now surely?

You still don't understand the difference between a function and the value of a function in a point. So, no "when x=0" applies. Take that calculus class, it will do you a lot of good.
 
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  • #148
starthaus said:
You still don't understand the difference between a function and the value of a function in a point. So, no "when x=0" applies. Take that calculus class, it will do you a lot of good.

You don't have the flexibility to realize that if a function f(x) is valid for all x then one of the values that x can take is zero. Any conclusions drawn from assuming x=0 are only valid at that point in the curve and for most people here it is not a problem as long as the context is understood. That means you have to read some of the surrounding text rather than just focusing on the mathematical symbols and being too rigid in your formalisms. Even when I demostrated to you that your mathematics leads to the conclusion that a ball thrown up in the air stops at the apogee and does not fall back down, you would rather consider that there was something wrong with nature before you would consider that you made a mistake with your mathematics. Here is a hot tip. If your mathematics do not agree with what is seen with nature, it is the mathematics that is probably wrong.
 
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  • #149
Nice work in post #132 Altabeh. I will bookmark it and come back to it. I am sure I can learn some new things from your material.

Thanks.
 
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  • #150
kev said:
You don't have the flexibility to realize that if a function f(x) is valid for all x then one of the values that x can take is zero. Any conclusions drawn from assuming x=0 are only valid at that point in the curve and for most people here it is not a problem as long as the context is understood. That means you have to read some of the surrounding text rather than just focusing on the mathematical symbols and being too rigid in your formalisms.

I don't understand why you insist in continuing to embarass yourself by showing your ignorance in terms of calculus. Especially since you have been shown several derivations that do not employ the dr=0 hack.

Even when I demostrated to you that your mathematics leads to the conclusion that a ball thrown up in the air stops at the apogee and does not fall back down, you would rather consider that there was something wrong with nature before you would consider that you made a mistake with your mathematics.

While you "demonstration" is correct, it is totally irrelevant. It simply illustrates your inability to tell the difference between a function and its value in a point. You could easily remedy this if you took a class in calculus. You can't really pretend that you're doing physics when you fail basic calculus. It is really simple, kev, calculus 101 teaches you that if f(x)=constant then
\frac{df}{dx}=0 for all x. There is no way around it. Can you generalize this to the case\frac{df}{dx}=constant implies \frac{d^2f}{dx^2}=0 for all x?
 
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