Do Newton's Three Laws of Motion Hold True in Quantum Physics?

AI Thread Summary
Newton's three laws of motion remain valid within their applicable contexts, primarily classical mechanics. The first law emphasizes inertia, stating that an object will maintain its state of motion unless influenced by an external force. The second law connects force to momentum change, while the third law asserts that every action has an equal and opposite reaction. However, these laws break down under extreme conditions, such as high speeds or in dense gravitational fields, where relativity and quantum mechanics take precedence. Overall, while Newton's laws are foundational for classical physics, their applicability is limited in certain modern scientific contexts.
MetricBrian
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Are Newton's three laws of motion correct as Netwon stated them?

1. The first law is the principle of inertia. It states that an object in motion will continue to move unless acted on by an external force. And that an object at rest will remain at rest unless acted on by an external force.
2. The second law states that the change in momentum is proportional to the external force.
3. The third law is that for every action there is an equal and opposite reaction.
 
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On the third law the direction is also opposite F(1,2)=-F(2,1)
 
Yes, but are all these laws still considered correct today?
 
Absolutely, in their context. They're still the basis for every piece of machinery, every building; pretty much everything designed by man.
 
MetricBrian said:
Yes, but are all these laws still considered correct today?
Except insofar as they break down at very high speeds where relativity takes over, yes.
 
russ_watters said:
Except insofar as they break down at very high speeds where relativity takes over, yes.


Yes, but the three laws are general ideas about motion not equations and as general ideas are they not correct?
 
russ_watters
Except insofar as they break down at very high speeds where relativity takes over, yes.
Or, as I understand it, in very dense gravitational fields (general relativity) or on very small scales (quantum mechanics).
 
But even in relativity its correct to say that the change in momentum is proportional to the external force.
 
MetricBrian said:
But even in relativity its correct to say that the change in momentum is proportional to the external force.
Yes, but this force need not be in the same direction as the change in momentum.
 
  • #10
MetricBrian said:
Yes, but the three laws are general ideas about motion not equations and as general ideas are they not correct?
The equations equations are connected to their verbal descriptions. Newton's first law, as you stated it, is basically a verbal description of f=ma.

And yes, again, they are correct in their domain.
 
  • #11
russ_watters said:
The equations equations are connected to their verbal descriptions. Newton's first law, as you stated it, is basically a verbal description of f=ma.

And yes, again, they are correct in their domain.

The first law (a = 0 if f = 0) is a special case of the second law (f = ma).
 
  • #12
russ_watters said:
The equations equations are connected to their verbal descriptions. Newton's first law, as you stated it, is basically a verbal description of f=ma.

And yes, again, they are correct in their domain.

The idea that: the change in momentum is proportional to the external force can
also be expressed as F = dp/dt which was the original Newtonian notation
 
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  • #13
or in quantum physics
 
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