Does $\sqrt{n!+n}-\sqrt{n!} > 1$ for Some Integer n?

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The discussion centers on whether the inequality $\sqrt{n!+n}-\sqrt{n!} > 1$ holds for any integer n. Participants suggest approximating the expression and analyze its behavior, concluding that the maximum value occurs between n=1 and n=3, specifically near n=2, where it is less than 1. Further analysis shows that for n greater than 3, the expression decreases rapidly and remains below 1. The consensus is that the inequality does not hold for any integer n, reinforcing the idea that the sequence is decreasing. Overall, the conclusion is that $\sqrt{n!+n}-\sqrt{n!}$ is always less than 1 for all positive integers n.
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Is there an integer n such that

\sqrt{n!+n}-\sqrt{n!} > 1

?
 
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What have you tried?

*Sigh* If you really have no clue at all where to begin, try approximating things.
 
Congregrate, consummate, conjugate, conflagrate and contemplate.
 
You may find that the approximation

\sqrt{n!+n} = \sqrt{n!}\sqrt{1+n/n!} = \sqrt{n!}\,\Big(1+\frac{1}{2(n-1)!}+\cdots\Big)

is useful.
 
Treadstone 71 said:
Is there an integer n such that

\sqrt{n!+n}-\sqrt{n!} > 1

?

Your function appears to have an absolute maximum (for positive integers, anyway) somewhere between n=1 and n=3 (near n=2 perhaps). The value of the function at n=2 is 2- \sqrt2 which is about 0.585786 <1. So I would say no. Unless n is negative. I haven't a clue how to calculate it in that case.

-Dan
 
Yes there is indeed a max < 1, after which it tends to 0, very, very rapidly.

Too bad, I was hoping to disprove Andrica's conjecture.
 
The simplest way to see this, is to first multiply with the conjugate expression:
\sqrt{n!+n}-\sqrt{n!}=\frac{(\sqrt{n!+n}+\sqrt{n!})(\sqrt{n!+n}-\sqrt{n!})}{\sqrt{n!+n}+\sqrt{n!}}\leq\frac{n}{2\sqrt{n!}}
One can easily prove the proposition from this bound:
For any n>3, we have
\frac{n+1}{2\sqrt{(n+1)!}}=\frac{n}{2\sqrt{n!}}\frac{1+\frac{1}{n}}{\sqrt{n+1}}&lt;\frac{n}{2\sqrt{n!}}\frac{2}{2}=\frac{n}{2\sqrt{n!}}
I.e, the sequence is decreasing.
 
Last edited:
arildno said:
The simplest way to see this, is to first multiply with the conjugate expression:
\sqrt{n!+n}-\sqrt{n!}=\frac{(\sqrt{n!+n}+\sqrt{n!})(\sqrt{n!+n}-\sqrt{n!})}{\sqrt{n!+n}+\sqrt{n!}}\leq\frac{n}{2\sqrt{n!}}
One can easily prove the proposition from this bound:
For any n>3, we have
\frac{n+1}{2\sqrt{(n+1)!}}=\frac{n}{2\sqrt{n!}}\frac{1+\frac{1}{n}}{\sqrt{n+1}}&lt;\frac{n}{2\sqrt{n!}}\frac{2}{2}=\frac{n}{2\sqrt{n!}}
I.e, the sequence is decreasing.
I am not very sure that I understand your post correctly, but do you mean:
\sqrt{(n + 1)! + (n + 1)} - \sqrt{(n + 1)!} \leq \frac{n + 1}{2 \sqrt{(n + 1)!}} &lt; \frac{n}{2 \sqrt{n!}} \geq \sqrt{n!+n}-\sqrt{n!}. And you conclude that:
\sqrt{(n + 1)! + (n + 1)} - \sqrt{(n + 1)!} \leq \sqrt{n! + n} - \sqrt{n!}.
Is that reasonable?
Am I missing something?
 
Hmm, no.
Multiplying out the numerator, we have the identity:
\sqrt{n!+n}-\sqrt{n!}=\frac{n}{\sqrt{n!+n}+\sqrt{n!}}\leq\frac{n}{2\sqrt{n!}}
This holds for ANY n.
Thus, if you can show that this bound is always less than 1 for any n, then it follows that your original difference expression must also be less than 1 for any n.
 
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arildno said:
Hmm, no.
Multiplying out the numerator, we have the identity:
\sqrt{n!+n}-\sqrt{n!}=\frac{n}{\sqrt{n!+n}+\sqrt{n!}}\leq\frac{n}{2\sqrt{n!}}
This holds for ANY n.
Thus, if you can show that this bound is always less than 1 for any n, then it follows that your original difference expression must also be less than 1 for any n.
Whoops, srry for misinterpreting your post. :redface:
Should've read it more carefully. :blushing:
 
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