Does $\sqrt{n!+n}-\sqrt{n!} > 1$ for Some Integer n?

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around the inequality involving factorials: whether there exists an integer \( n \) such that \( \sqrt{n!+n}-\sqrt{n!} > 1 \). Participants explore the implications of this inequality within the context of factorial growth and approximations.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Assumption checking, Mathematical reasoning

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants inquire about the existence of an integer \( n \) that satisfies the inequality. Some suggest approximating the expression and consider the behavior of the function for small integers. Others discuss the implications of bounding the expression and whether the maximum occurs within a specific range.

Discussion Status

The conversation is ongoing, with various participants providing insights and exploring different interpretations of the problem. Some have suggested that the maximum value of the expression is less than 1, while others are examining the implications of bounding techniques. There is no explicit consensus yet, but several productive lines of reasoning are being explored.

Contextual Notes

Participants mention that the behavior of the expression changes significantly for integers greater than 3, and there are references to specific values and approximations that may influence the outcome. The discussion also touches on the implications for conjectures related to the inequality.

Treadstone 71
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Is there an integer n such that

[tex]\sqrt{n!+n}-\sqrt{n!} > 1[/tex]

?
 
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What have you tried?

*Sigh* If you really have no clue at all where to begin, try approximating things.
 
Congregrate, consummate, conjugate, conflagrate and contemplate.
 
You may find that the approximation

[tex]\sqrt{n!+n} = \sqrt{n!}\sqrt{1+n/n!} = \sqrt{n!}\,\Big(1+\frac{1}{2(n-1)!}+\cdots\Big)[/tex]

is useful.
 
Treadstone 71 said:
Is there an integer n such that

[tex]\sqrt{n!+n}-\sqrt{n!} > 1[/tex]

?

Your function appears to have an absolute maximum (for positive integers, anyway) somewhere between n=1 and n=3 (near n=2 perhaps). The value of the function at n=2 is [tex]2- \sqrt2[/tex] which is about 0.585786 <1. So I would say no. Unless n is negative. I haven't a clue how to calculate it in that case.

-Dan
 
Yes there is indeed a max < 1, after which it tends to 0, very, very rapidly.

Too bad, I was hoping to disprove Andrica's conjecture.
 
The simplest way to see this, is to first multiply with the conjugate expression:
[tex]\sqrt{n!+n}-\sqrt{n!}=\frac{(\sqrt{n!+n}+\sqrt{n!})(\sqrt{n!+n}-\sqrt{n!})}{\sqrt{n!+n}+\sqrt{n!}}\leq\frac{n}{2\sqrt{n!}}[/tex]
One can easily prove the proposition from this bound:
For any n>3, we have
[tex]\frac{n+1}{2\sqrt{(n+1)!}}=\frac{n}{2\sqrt{n!}}\frac{1+\frac{1}{n}}{\sqrt{n+1}}<\frac{n}{2\sqrt{n!}}\frac{2}{2}=\frac{n}{2\sqrt{n!}}[/tex]
I.e, the sequence is decreasing.
 
Last edited:
arildno said:
The simplest way to see this, is to first multiply with the conjugate expression:
[tex]\sqrt{n!+n}-\sqrt{n!}=\frac{(\sqrt{n!+n}+\sqrt{n!})(\sqrt{n!+n}-\sqrt{n!})}{\sqrt{n!+n}+\sqrt{n!}}\leq\frac{n}{2\sqrt{n!}}[/tex]
One can easily prove the proposition from this bound:
For any n>3, we have
[tex]\frac{n+1}{2\sqrt{(n+1)!}}=\frac{n}{2\sqrt{n!}}\frac{1+\frac{1}{n}}{\sqrt{n+1}}<\frac{n}{2\sqrt{n!}}\frac{2}{2}=\frac{n}{2\sqrt{n!}}[/tex]
I.e, the sequence is decreasing.
I am not very sure that I understand your post correctly, but do you mean:
[tex]\sqrt{(n + 1)! + (n + 1)} - \sqrt{(n + 1)!} \leq \frac{n + 1}{2 \sqrt{(n + 1)!}} < \frac{n}{2 \sqrt{n!}} \geq \sqrt{n!+n}-\sqrt{n!}[/tex]. And you conclude that:
[tex]\sqrt{(n + 1)! + (n + 1)} - \sqrt{(n + 1)!} \leq \sqrt{n! + n} - \sqrt{n!}[/tex].
Is that reasonable?
Am I missing something?
 
Hmm, no.
Multiplying out the numerator, we have the identity:
[tex]\sqrt{n!+n}-\sqrt{n!}=\frac{n}{\sqrt{n!+n}+\sqrt{n!}}\leq\frac{n}{2\sqrt{n!}}[/tex]
This holds for ANY n.
Thus, if you can show that this bound is always less than 1 for any n, then it follows that your original difference expression must also be less than 1 for any n.
 
  • #10
arildno said:
Hmm, no.
Multiplying out the numerator, we have the identity:
[tex]\sqrt{n!+n}-\sqrt{n!}=\frac{n}{\sqrt{n!+n}+\sqrt{n!}}\leq\frac{n}{2\sqrt{n!}}[/tex]
This holds for ANY n.
Thus, if you can show that this bound is always less than 1 for any n, then it follows that your original difference expression must also be less than 1 for any n.
Whoops, srry for misinterpreting your post. :redface:
Should've read it more carefully. :blushing:
 

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