My other question:
In the infinite square potential well model, the wavefunction outside the well is zero. Two reasons are usually put forward:
1. V is infinite. So Vu is infinite unless u = 0. (I don't understand what's still wrong with Vu being infinite.)
2. The particle can't be in a region of infinite potential if it lacks infinite energy. (Why not? Why should classical principles dictate quantum rules? Moreover, in the finite square well model, there is a finite probability of the particle being within the potential barrier? Isn't that a violation of the classical principle we are using in the above argument?) Therefore, u = 0.
Thanks for any help.