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I started reading this ODE book and it first starts by introducing the concept of the differential of a function of one independent variable. Here is the definition:
Let y = f(x) define y as a function of x on an interval I. The differential of y, written as dy (or df) is defined by
(dy)(x,\Delta x) = f'(x)\Delta x
Then it goes on to say:
To distinguish between the function defined by y = x and the variable x, we place the symbol ^ over the x so that y = \hat{x}. If y = \hat{x} then
(dy)(x,\Delta x) = (d\hat{x})(x,\Delta x) = \Delta x
since f'(x) = 1. The text generalizes further by restating the first equation as
(dy)(x,\Delta x) = f'(x) (d\hat{x})(x,\Delta x)
I'm still not clear why this substitution is made. It then goes on and states: The relation [the equation above] is the correct one, but in the course of time, it became customary to write [the equation above] in the more familiar form dy = f'(x) dx. So, as I understand it, \Delta x = dx!? I'm I missing something.
Let y = f(x) define y as a function of x on an interval I. The differential of y, written as dy (or df) is defined by
(dy)(x,\Delta x) = f'(x)\Delta x
Then it goes on to say:
To distinguish between the function defined by y = x and the variable x, we place the symbol ^ over the x so that y = \hat{x}. If y = \hat{x} then
(dy)(x,\Delta x) = (d\hat{x})(x,\Delta x) = \Delta x
since f'(x) = 1. The text generalizes further by restating the first equation as
(dy)(x,\Delta x) = f'(x) (d\hat{x})(x,\Delta x)
I'm still not clear why this substitution is made. It then goes on and states: The relation [the equation above] is the correct one, but in the course of time, it became customary to write [the equation above] in the more familiar form dy = f'(x) dx. So, as I understand it, \Delta x = dx!? I'm I missing something.