Proof of rational density using Dedekind cuts

loops496
Messages
24
Reaction score
3
The Problem

Let x and y be real numbers such that y<x, using the Dedekind cut construction of reals prove that there is always a rational q such that y<q<x

What I've done

Since I can associate a cut to every real number, let x^∗ be the cut associated to x and y^∗ the one associated with y.
Since y<x \implies y^* \subsetneq x^* then \exists q \in \Bbb Q such that q \in x^* and q\not\in y^*. Next I associate a cut q^∗ to q. Now how can I deduce from there that q^* \subsetneq x^* and y^* \subsetneq q^*, thus proving y<q<x

Any help will be appreciated,
M.
 
Last edited:
Physics news on Phys.org
If you are simply asking if that is a valid proof, yes, it looks good to me.
 
Thank HallsofIvy for replying.
The thing is that my professor told me that its not immediate from what I previously wrote that q^* \subsetneq x^* and y^* \subsetneq q^* so I can't conclude solely on my argument y<q<x. But I can't see what I'm missing, I was hoping you guys would guide me towards finding that subtlety to complete the proof.
 
I'm assuming that in your definition of Dedekind cut, if ##q## is rational then ##q## is NOT an element of ##q^*## but rather is the smallest element of ##\mathbb{Q}\setminus q^*##. If you use the opposite convention, then adjust my argument below appropriately.

If ##x## and ##y## are irrational, then your proof is fine.

If ##x## and ##y## are rational, then you can simply choose ##q = (x+y)/2##.

If ##y## is irrational and ##x## is rational, then your proof is fine: ##q## cannot be ##x## because you chose ##q \in x^*## whereas ##x \not\in x^*##.

Finally, if ##y## is rational and ##x## is irrational, then your proof does not exclude the possibility that ##q=y##. In other words, ##q## might be the smallest element of ##x^* \setminus y^*##. But if this is the case, note that ##x^*## does not have a largest element, so you can simply replace ##q## with a larger rational in ##x^*##.
 
  • Like
Likes 1 person
Let the real numbers x and y be represented by cuts (X_1,X_2) and (Y_1,Y_2), where a cut (A,B) is a partition of \mathbb{Q} such that any element of A is less than any element of B, and A has no greatest element. To say that y < x, is to say that Y_1 \subset X_1 by the ordering of cuts. Since this is a proper subset, we may find a rational p \in X_1 - Y_1. But since X_1 has no greatest element, we may find another rational q \in X_1-Y_1 such that q>p. It is easily seen that its cut (Q_1,Q_2) is such that Y_1 \subset Q_1 \subset X_1, because if we let the cut (P_1,P_2) represent p, we have the following: Y_1 \subseteq P_1 \subset Q_1 \subset X_1, where the last inclusion is true because q cannot be the greatest element of X_1.
 
  • Like
Likes 1 person
Oh, now I get it. Thanks for the replies and the help guys, it was very helpful.
 
A sphere as topological manifold can be defined by gluing together the boundary of two disk. Basically one starts assigning each disk the subspace topology from ##\mathbb R^2## and then taking the quotient topology obtained by gluing their boundaries. Starting from the above definition of 2-sphere as topological manifold, shows that it is homeomorphic to the "embedded" sphere understood as subset of ##\mathbb R^3## in the subspace topology.
Back
Top