Solve Binomial Identities to Approximate Fresnel Zone Radius

AI Thread Summary
The discussion focuses on deriving the Fresnel zone radius approximation using the binomial theorem and Taylor series. A user expresses confusion over a mathematical jump in the derivation, specifically regarding the transition from (D^2 + r^2)^(1/2) to D(1 + (r^2)/(D^2))^(1/2). The conversation highlights the Taylor series approximation, where the second term is retained to simplify the expression. The Taylor series is explained as a way to represent differentiable functions as an infinite sum of terms based on their derivatives at a single point. The thread concludes with a request for further clarification on the Taylor series derivation.
mezarashi
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I was going the derivations for Fresnel zone radius approximation, and there was a jump in the math which I don't fully understand. If someone could take a look at this and help me figure. I was hinted that it had to do with the binomial theorem, but I have no idea >.<

Seems like LaTeX isn't working -_-
(D^2 + r^2)^(1/2)
if r << D
( D^2( 1 + (r^2)/(D^2) ) )^(1/2)

D1 + (r^2)/(2D^2) <--- ?
.
.
.
 
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Let's set this in Latex:
(D^{2}+r^{2})^{\frac{1}{2}}=D(1+\epsilon)^{\frac{1}{2}}, \epsilon=(\frac{r}{D})^{2}
If we now have \epsilon&lt;&lt;1, we have, by retaining the second term of the Taylor series about \epsilon=0:
(1+\epsilon)^{\frac{1}{2}}\approx{1}+\frac{\epsilon}{2}

Thus, you have:
(D^{2}+r^{2})^{\frac{1}{2}}\approx{D}+\frac{r^{2}}{2D}, \frac{r}{D}&lt;&lt;1
 
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Hey awesome, thanks. Oh and Latex is working :P
Could you tell me a bit more about this "Taylor series" approximation or a link to its derivation, although I know this is true by punching some test numbers in the calculator. Thanks again.
 
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Okay, about Taylor series:
You know that given f(x) differentiable, you may write it as:
f(x)=f(0)+\int_{0}^{x}f&#039;(t)dt(1)
Now, use partial integration on the integral in the following manner:
\int_{0}^{x}f&#039;(t)dt=(t-x)f&#039;(t)\mid_{t=0}^{t=x}-\int_{0}^{x}(t-x)f&#039;&#039;(t)dt(2)
We also have:
(t-x)f&#039;(t)\mid_{t=0}^{t=x}=0*f&#039;(x)+xf&#039;(0)=xf&#039;(0)
thus, (2) may be written as:
f(x)=f(0)+f&#039;(0)x+\int_{0}^{x}(x-t)f&#039;&#039;(t)dt(3)
where I have drawn the minus sign underneath the integral sign.
We may now rewrite (3) by noting:
\int_{0}^{x}(x-t)f&#039;&#039;(t)dt=\frac{x^{2}}{2!}f&#039;&#039;(0)+\frac{1}{2!}\int_{0}^{x}(x-t)^{2}f&#039;&#039;&#039;(t)dt
that is:
f(x)=f(0)+f&#039;(0)x+\frac{f&#039;&#039;(0)}{2!}x^{2}+\frac{1}{2!}\int_{0}^{x}(x-t)^{2}f&#039;&#039;&#039;(t)dt(4)
The emerging series has the form, for an infinitely differentiable function:
f(x)=\sum_{n=0}^{\infty}\frac{f^{(n)}(0)}{n!}x^{n}
where n! is the factorial 1*2*3...*n (0!=1), and f^{(n)} denotes the n'th derivative of f. (f is considered its own 0'th derivative).

That infinite series is called the Taylor series of f with respect to 0, a finite, truncated version of it is called a Taylor series approximation to f.

If we have the identity containing f(x) on the left-hand side and a finite sum and the integral on the right-hand side (for example our (4)), we call the integral "the remainder", or "error term".
 
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