1 is by definition 0.999999999 9?

  • Thread starter Thread starter adarpodracir
  • Start date Start date
  • Tags Tags
    Definition
adarpodracir
Messages
5
Reaction score
0
Hi there,

I have a question regarding this statement:

35jvtvt.png


My question is whether we can say so...

Thank you very much!
 
Mathematics news on Phys.org
OP, the answer is that .999... = 1. It's an equality. They're two expressions that represent the same number.

The reason this is so is that .999... is defined as the infinite sum

9/10 + 9/100 + 9/1000 + ...

This is a geometric series whose sum is 1. This is proven in first-year calculus.

Another way to see it is that there's no distance between the number denoted by .999... and the number denoted by 1. That is, suppose you say, well, .999... is 1/zillion away from1. But I'll just point out that if you take enough 9's, you'll eventually get WITHIN 1/zillion of 1.

So if there's no conceivable positive difference between .999... and 1, then they must represent the same number.

Possible conceptual objections to this reasoning are things like:

* "But how can you have two different expressions for the same number?" Easy. 4 and 2 + 2 are two different expressions for the same number. It happens all the time.

* There must be an "infinitesimal" difference between 1 and .999..." In the standard real number system, there are no infinitesimals. A distance is either zero or positive. Since there's no positive distance between .999... and 1, the distance between them is zero and they're the same number.

Hope this helps. There are discussions of this topic all over the net.
 
Last edited:
There is already a thread about this. Please visit the Frequently Asked Questions subforum.
 
Do you realize the question you ask in your post and the question you ask in the title are quite different?
 
Please read this: https://www.physicsforums.com/showthread.php?t=507001
 
Last edited by a moderator:
Many thanks to all of you for reply. Everything is clear now.
 
Insights auto threads is broken atm, so I'm manually creating these for new Insight articles. In Dirac’s Principles of Quantum Mechanics published in 1930 he introduced a “convenient notation” he referred to as a “delta function” which he treated as a continuum analog to the discrete Kronecker delta. The Kronecker delta is simply the indexed components of the identity operator in matrix algebra Source: https://www.physicsforums.com/insights/what-exactly-is-diracs-delta-function/ by...
Fermat's Last Theorem has long been one of the most famous mathematical problems, and is now one of the most famous theorems. It simply states that the equation $$ a^n+b^n=c^n $$ has no solutions with positive integers if ##n>2.## It was named after Pierre de Fermat (1607-1665). The problem itself stems from the book Arithmetica by Diophantus of Alexandria. It gained popularity because Fermat noted in his copy "Cubum autem in duos cubos, aut quadratoquadratum in duos quadratoquadratos, et...
Thread 'Imaginary Pythagorus'
I posted this in the Lame Math thread, but it's got me thinking. Is there any validity to this? Or is it really just a mathematical trick? Naively, I see that i2 + plus 12 does equal zero2. But does this have a meaning? I know one can treat the imaginary number line as just another axis like the reals, but does that mean this does represent a triangle in the complex plane with a hypotenuse of length zero? Ibix offered a rendering of the diagram using what I assume is matrix* notation...

Similar threads

Replies
14
Views
2K
Replies
3
Views
2K
Replies
5
Views
2K
Replies
4
Views
1K
Replies
1
Views
1K
Replies
7
Views
2K
Replies
2
Views
1K
Replies
3
Views
2K
Back
Top