Gokul43201 said:
I don't understand what you're talking about there.
If the bowling ball were only a little more massive than the ping-pong ball, the ping pong ball would have a greater momentum. And the force applied by the decelerating ball depends on the impulse time, which in turn depends on the elastic properties of the ball and what it's hitting.
And what's this "strong magnetic force" have anything to do with being smacked by a ball ? And why does this need THE atomic model to be correct ? And why do you doubt the atomic model ?
I'm sorry if I'm not following the line of logic here...it seems a little fuzzy to me.
Thank you for your inquiries, Goku. To be honest, I am never too sure about my own statements.
Here is how I see the situation.
I am considering an ideal environment, where both the ping pong ball and bowling ball are perfect hollow spheres. Assuming that both of them are traveling at a constant velocity (200 MPH), and also neglecting external forces (for example: air resistance), we analyse which one of them produces more "force".
If we imagine both of the objects in the atomic level, I am imagining that the bowling ball consists of more electrons that are more "closely packed" than that of the ping pong ball. This in turn allows the bowling ball to induce a stronger magnetic repulsion (in other words, force) than that of of the ping pong ball. Of course, we need to also assume that both balls are going to be in "contact" with another object to produce this force.
This explanation can only be used if the atomic model is valid. I have never doubted the model, however, but I feel that I should state it because there is always a possibility that it can be proven false... well at the present time at least.
I am guessing you understand already why the bowling ball should have a higher momentum than the ping pong ball.
That is the way I see it, and it seems to make sense to me. I could be wrong. Once again, thank you for analysing my post, Goku.