I am not a physics student (my background is that of an engineer + MBA) but have read a lot about relativity and have built up a fair level of understanding.(adsbygoogle = window.adsbygoogle || []).push({});

I just thought up a situation regarding Lorentz contraction that has kind of confused my understanding of the same. Consider the following scenario:

Ais an earth based observer.Bis an observer 10 LY away from the earth and is at rest with respect to observerA.Cis an observer situated on the line betweenAandBand is situated 5 LY from bothAandB. In other words,Cis located midway betweenAandB.Cis also at rest with respect toAandB.

Hence in the above scenario,AmeasuresBandCto be located a distances 10 LY and 5 LY respectively from himself.

Now suppose that for some reasonCstarts moving towardsBwith a velocity 0.866c. This means that the relative velocity betweenAandCis also 0.866c (in the opposite direction). Therefore,Awould now measure the distance between himself andCto be only 2.5 LY (due to Lorentz contraction). However,Astill measures the distance toBto be 10 LY.

The above would imply thatAwould now measure the distance betweenBandCto be 7.5 LY.

Is the above conclusion correct? It appeared very weird to me that despiteCattaining a velocity in the direction ofB, i.e. away fromA, A still measures a decrease in the distance between himself andCand an increase in the distance betweenBandC.

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# A question regarding length contraction

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