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## Main Question or Discussion Point

I am not a physics student (my background is that of an engineer + MBA) but have read a lot about relativity and have built up a fair level of understanding.

I just thought up a situation regarding Lorentz contraction that has kind of confused my understanding of the same. Consider the following scenario:

Hence in the above scenario,

Now suppose that for some reason

The above would imply that

Is the above conclusion correct? It appeared very weird to me that despite

I just thought up a situation regarding Lorentz contraction that has kind of confused my understanding of the same. Consider the following scenario:

**A**is an earth based observer.**B**is an observer 10 LY away from the earth and is at rest with respect to observer**A**.**C**is an observer situated on the line between**A**and**B**and is situated 5 LY from both**A**and**B**. In other words,**C**is located midway between**A**and**B**.**C**is also at rest with respect to**A**and**B**.Hence in the above scenario,

**A**measures**B**and**C**to be located a distances 10 LY and 5 LY respectively from himself.Now suppose that for some reason

**C**starts moving towards**B**with a velocity 0.866c. This means that the relative velocity between**A**and**C**is also 0.866c (in the opposite direction). Therefore,**A**would now measure the distance between himself and**C**to be only 2.5 LY (due to Lorentz contraction). However,**A**still measures the distance to**B**to be 10 LY.The above would imply that

**A**would now measure the distance between**B**and**C**to be 7.5 LY.Is the above conclusion correct? It appeared very weird to me that despite

**C**attaining a velocity in the direction of**B**, i.e. away from**A**, A still measures a decrease in the distance between himself and**C**and an increase in the distance between**B**and**C**.