- #1
Alain De Vos
- 36
- 1
Let F be a force vector and a an acceleration vector.
A vector v(x,y,z) in 3 dimensional space xyz is the set of
objects ((x1,y1,z1),(x2,y2,z2)) with conditions : x2-x1=x , y2-y1=y , z2-z1=z
Writing vectorial F=ma , the equality means an equality between the sets.
When a ball falls in a gravitational field it follows the vectorial law F=ma.
So now i have an equality between 2 sets with infinite elements,
but only one ball ? Did i miss something ?
A vector v(x,y,z) in 3 dimensional space xyz is the set of
objects ((x1,y1,z1),(x2,y2,z2)) with conditions : x2-x1=x , y2-y1=y , z2-z1=z
Writing vectorial F=ma , the equality means an equality between the sets.
When a ball falls in a gravitational field it follows the vectorial law F=ma.
So now i have an equality between 2 sets with infinite elements,
but only one ball ? Did i miss something ?