(Algebra) Quantum Theory - Cauchy-Schwartz inequality proof

FatPhysicsBoy
Messages
62
Reaction score
0

Homework Statement


Given two arbitrary vectors |\phi_{1}\rangle and |\phi_{2}\rangle belonging to the inner product space \mathcal{H}, the Cauchy-Schwartz inequality states that:

|\langle\phi_{1}|\phi_{2}\rangle|^{2} \leq \langle\phi_{1}|\phi_{1}\rangle \langle\phi_{2}|\phi_{2}\rangle.

Consider |\Psi\rangle = |\phi_{1}\rangle + \lambda|\phi_{2}\rangle

where \lambda is a complex number that can be written as \lambda = a + ib.

a) Write an expression for \langle\Psi|\Psi\rangle \geq 0 as a function of \lambda then rewrite as a function of a and b (f(a,b)).

b) Show that the value of \lambda that minimises \langle\Psi|\Psi\rangle is:

\lambda_{min} = -\frac{\langle\phi_{2}|\phi_{1}\rangle}{\langle\phi_{2}|\phi_{2}\rangle}.

Hint: Compute the derivatives of f(a,b) wrt a and b, solve these to get a_{min} and b_{min} and then compute \lambda_{min}.

Homework Equations



N/A

The Attempt at a Solution



I get \langle\Psi|\Psi\rangle = \langle\phi_{1}|\phi_{1}\rangle + a(\langle\phi_{1}|\phi_{2}\rangle + \langle\phi_{2}|\phi_{1}\rangle) + ib(\langle\phi_{1}|\phi_{2}\rangle - \langle\phi_{2}\phi_{1}\rangle) + (a^{2} + b^{2})\langle\phi_{2}|\phi_{2}\rangle = f(a,b). However I can only show:

\lambda_{min} = -\frac{\langle\phi_{1}|\phi_{2}\rangle}{\langle\phi_{2}|\phi_{2}\rangle},

by combining Re and I am parts in f(a,b) as follows (and finding the relevant derivatives etc.):

\langle\Psi|\Psi\rangle = \langle\phi_{1}|\phi_{1}\rangle + 2a\textrm{Re}(\langle\phi_{1}|\phi_{2}\rangle) + 2b\textrm{Im}(\langle\phi_{1}|\phi_{2}\rangle) + (a^{2} + b^{2})\langle\phi_{2}|\phi_{2}\rangle.

This is the only way I understand how to do it, however, in the solutions for this problem the collection of Re and I am parts is done as follows which I don't understand (in particular the imaginary part):

\langle\Psi|\Psi\rangle = \langle\phi_{1}|\phi_{1}\rangle + 2a\textrm{Re}(\langle\phi_{2}|\phi_{1}\rangle) + 2b\textrm{Im}(\langle\phi_{2}|\phi_{1}\rangle) + (a^{2} + b^{2})\langle\phi_{2}|\phi_{2}\rangle

Thank you
 
Physics news on Phys.org
Anyone? Parts 1) and 2) can pretty much be ignored they just provide context for the problem.. I think ultimately it's just a complex number/conjugation question which I haven't understood properly.
 
Thread 'Need help understanding this figure on energy levels'
This figure is from "Introduction to Quantum Mechanics" by Griffiths (3rd edition). It is available to download. It is from page 142. I am hoping the usual people on this site will give me a hand understanding what is going on in the figure. After the equation (4.50) it says "It is customary to introduce the principal quantum number, ##n##, which simply orders the allowed energies, starting with 1 for the ground state. (see the figure)" I still don't understand the figure :( Here is...
Thread 'Understanding how to "tack on" the time wiggle factor'
The last problem I posted on QM made it into advanced homework help, that is why I am putting it here. I am sorry for any hassle imposed on the moderators by myself. Part (a) is quite easy. We get $$\sigma_1 = 2\lambda, \mathbf{v}_1 = \begin{pmatrix} 0 \\ 0 \\ 1 \end{pmatrix} \sigma_2 = \lambda, \mathbf{v}_2 = \begin{pmatrix} 1/\sqrt{2} \\ 1/\sqrt{2} \\ 0 \end{pmatrix} \sigma_3 = -\lambda, \mathbf{v}_3 = \begin{pmatrix} 1/\sqrt{2} \\ -1/\sqrt{2} \\ 0 \end{pmatrix} $$ There are two ways...
Back
Top