An equation related to the dimension of linear operator

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SUMMARY

The discussion revolves around proving the equation rank A = rank B + dim(Im A ∩ Ker B for finite vector spaces V and linear operators A and B. The user attempts to demonstrate that dim(Im A + Ker B) equals dim V, but expresses confusion regarding the implications of their proof. A counterexample is provided, illustrating that the statement does not hold if A is the zero operator and B is non-zero, confirming that the operators must not be arbitrary for the equation to be valid.

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  • Understanding of linear algebra concepts such as rank, image, and kernel of linear operators.
  • Familiarity with finite vector spaces and their properties.
  • Knowledge of the dimension theorem in linear algebra.
  • Ability to work with linear combinations and basis extensions in vector spaces.
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Students and educators in linear algebra, mathematicians exploring linear transformations, and anyone seeking to deepen their understanding of the relationships between rank, image, and kernel in vector spaces.

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Homework Statement


Let V be a finite vector space, and A, B be any two linear operator. Prove that,
rank A = rank B + dim(Im A [tex]\cap[/tex] Ker B)


The Attempt at a Solution


Since rank A = dim I am A
dim(Im B)+ dim(Ker B)=dim V
dim(Im A + Ker B)=dim(Im A)+dim(Ker B)-dim(Im A [tex]\cap[/tex] Ker B)
It seems equivalent to prove that dim(Im A + Ker B)=dim V

it is obvious that I am A + Ker B [tex]\subseteq[/tex] V. So it should be true that V [tex]\subseteq[/tex] I am A + Ker B.

If I let Ker B=<e_1,...,e_k> and extend it to a basis of V=<e_1,..e_k, e_k+1,...e_n>. Choose any [tex]x=\sum^{n}_{i=1} x_{i}e_{i}=\sum^{k}_{i=1} x_{i}e_{i} + \sum^{n}_{i=k+1} x_{i}e_{i}[/tex]. The first term is in Ker B, the second is not in Ker B and therefore should be in I am A. This is what confuses me a lot since it is not necessary to be true IMO...

What's your idea? Where I made the mistakes? Can you give me any hint to prove it? Thanks very much
 
Physics news on Phys.org
Are A and B arbitrary operators on V? If so this isn't true unless V={0}. For a counterexample, take A=0 and let B be any nonzero operator.
 
THanks!
 

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