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## Main Question or Discussion Point

Suppose f is continuous function on [a,b] such that for each continuous function g, [tex]\int[/tex](fg)dj = 0 (Note: integral is from a to b) , then f(x) = 0 for each x in [a,b].

I know that I should use the theorem If is continuous on [a,b], f(x)[tex]\geq[/tex]0 for each x in [a,b] and theree is a number p i n [a,b] such that f(p) > 0, THen [tex]\int[/tex]f dj > 0.

I just dont understand how they tie together.

I know that I should use the theorem If is continuous on [a,b], f(x)[tex]\geq[/tex]0 for each x in [a,b] and theree is a number p i n [a,b] such that f(p) > 0, THen [tex]\int[/tex]f dj > 0.

I just dont understand how they tie together.