Analysis: prove that ln(x) is a smooth function (i.e. infinitely differentiable)

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around proving that the function f(x) is smooth, specifically focusing on the natural logarithm function ln(x) and its properties of being infinitely differentiable. The original poster presents the function as f(x) = ln(x) defined through an integral representation.

Discussion Character

  • Conceptual clarification, Assumption checking, Mathematical reasoning

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants explore the implications of not assuming f(x) = ln(x) directly, questioning how f(x) can be defined. There is discussion about deriving the smoothness from the integral definition and calculating derivatives of 1/t.

Discussion Status

Participants are actively engaging with the problem, discussing the calculation of derivatives and the potential use of Taylor series for rigorous proof. There is recognition of the need to establish a pattern in derivatives and considerations about the domain of the function.

Contextual Notes

There is a noted constraint regarding the domain of definition for f(x), emphasizing that it is defined on (0,∞) and not on any interval containing 0, which affects the smoothness of the function and its derivatives.

yossup
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Homework Statement



Prove that f(x) is a smooth function (i.e. infinitely differentiable)

Homework Equations



ln(x) = \int^{x}_{1} 1/t dt

f(x) = ln(x)

The Attempt at a Solution



I was thinking about using taylor series to prove ln(x) is smooth but I'm strictly told to NOT assume f(x) = ln(x) beforehand.
 
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I'm confused. When you say you can't assume f(x)=ln(x), then how is f(x) defined?
 
Office_Shredder said:
I'm confused. When you say you can't assume f(x)=ln(x), then how is f(x) defined?

i guess i meant - we're supposed to derive that f(x) is smooth from f(x) = \int^{x}_{1} 1/t dt, rather than f(x)=ln(x)
 
Ok. Can you calculate f'(x) from that definition?
 
Office_Shredder said:
Ok. Can you calculate f'(x) from that definition?

f'(x) is just 1/t, so i just go about proving that 1/t is infinitely differentiable?
 
That's correct, except it's 1/x not 1/t
 
Office_Shredder said:
That's correct, except it's 1/x not 1/t

ah right. i know it's intuitive that 1/x is infinitely differentiable but what do we use to rigorously prove it? taylor series?
 
yossup said:
ah right. i know it's intuitive that 1/x is infinitely differentiable but what do we use to rigorously prove it? taylor series?

Well, can you calculate the derivative of 1/x? How about the second derivative of 1/x? The third derivative?

Once you see a pattern, think about a proof by induction
 
Office_Shredder said:
Well, can you calculate the derivative of 1/x? How about the second derivative of 1/x? The third derivative?

Once you see a pattern, think about a proof by induction

thank you.
 
  • #10
one caveat, which i feel i ought to mention:

the domain of definition *matters*.

you can define f on (0,∞), but not on any interval containing 0 (because f is undefined).

a similar restriction holds for the derivatives.

so it's not enough just to say f is smooth...you have to say WHERE f is smooth.
 

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