Analytic solution of the SHO for 1D Schrodinger

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SUMMARY

The discussion centers on the choice between the wave functions $$e^{-x^2 / 2}$$ and $$e^{-x^2}$$ in solving the 1D Schrödinger equation for the simple harmonic oscillator (SHO). The user questions the normalization issues associated with these functions and their impact on the second-order ordinary differential equation (ODE). They explore the implications of using the non-standard choice of $$e^{-x^2}$$ and note that both functions yield approximations rather than exact solutions, leading to the necessity of finding a correction term to achieve a homogenous solution.

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weak_phys
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Homework Statement
This is not a homework Q, only in the sense that I am revisiting my degree and wondering about this part of the problem (because it always bothered me): but for reference the leap is made in Griffiths 2.3.2 (2nd edition equation 2.7.4 and 2.7.5) and Liboff 7.20 (4th edition)
Relevant Equations
$$\frac{d^{2}\psi}{du^2} \simeq u^2 \psi$$
At the point where we 'guess' a solution to this 2nd order ODE that cannot be done analytically, I was wondering why Griff and others choose $$e^{-x^2 / 2}$$ rather than just $$e^{-x^2}$$ I've plotted both here and am left wondering what's so different? If we guessed instead the unpopular $$e^{-x^2}$$ surely we still have the same recursion formula and quantum number when we press on?
 
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Tried to upload an image of my plots but can't keep getting 'uploaded file was not an image as expected' - I've tried .png .jpg with the same error?
 
Probably for normalization issues. (Can't say I remember why, it's a guess).
 
MathematicalPhysicist said:
Probably for normalization issues. (Can't say I remember why, it's a guess).

Fair enough, I'm being a bit lazy by asking really - I might try and go on with the non standard choice and see what happens, but as it's an approximation anyway I can't for the life of me see it affecting the 2nd half of the derivation, but I shall see, cheers!
 
weak_phys said:
Fair enough, I'm being a bit lazy by asking really - I might try and go on with the non standard choice and see what happens, but as it's an approximation anyway I can't for the life of me see it affecting the 2nd half of the derivation, but I shall see, cheers!
Well, physics is for the masochists no doubt about it... :cool:
 
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The factor of 1/2 cancels the factor of 2 you get from the chain rule. If it wasn't there, you'd get ##\psi'' \cong 4 u^2 \psi##.
 
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vela said:
The factor of 1/2 cancels the factor of 2 you get from the chain rule. If it wasn't there, you'd get ##\psi'' \cong 4 u^2 \psi##.
Thanks for the reply. So yes, I did realize this, but neither this or the 1/2 factor delivers an ODE that =0, they are just approximations (I decided to do both, and the plots show that ##\psi## has great boundary conditions as u approaches +- infinity, but needs some correction around the origin of the wavefunction.
I don't know why I can't attach a photo of the plot (the attach file tab gives me an error) but take both approx solutions and sub them back into the ODE, you get...
$$\psi = (-1-3u^2)e^{\frac{-u^2}{2}}$$
or
$$\psi = (-2-5u^2)e^{-u^2}$$

Both are nice to plot and it's obvious to see why either cannot be a homogenous solution, just an approximation. So, obviously we look for another ##f(u)## to bolt onto ##\psi## to fix this and find our recursion relation.
I haven't had time to push on with this yet, but I will before the week is done!
 

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