Angular acceleration in terms of angular velocity

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The discussion focuses on the relationship between angular acceleration and angular velocity in the context of pendulum motion. The user seeks clarification on the equation α = ω², which seems to be a conversion factor for radial acceleration but lacks a clear derivation in their textbook. The conversation highlights the derivation of angular frequency for a physical pendulum, showing how it relates to simple harmonic motion (SHM) through the equation τ = -Mglθ. The connection between angular frequency and the moment of inertia is established, emphasizing the need for a deeper understanding of the underlying principles. The discussion concludes that a more detailed explanation or proof is necessary to fully grasp the transition to the square root relationship in the angular frequency formula.
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I've been working on problems that deal with pendulums and I've noticed that a few of my answers require me to find the angular velocity, frequency, period of a pendulum. I managed to get the answer right every time, but there's a step that I didn't understand, namely converting angular acceleration to angular velocity by what seems to be using this relationship:

\alpha=\omega^2

Where in the heck does this come from? :confused: The book kind of skips this step in the examples and doesn't prove it at all, even though it proves just about every other equation it mentions.
 
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That looks like a conversion factor for radial acceleration.

F=m * v2/r = m * a(rad)

so a(rad) is proportional to w2.

You'd need to show the example in detail for anyone to say more than that.
 
Here's how the book derives ##w=\sqrt{\frac{Mgl}{I}}##, the angular frequency of a physical pendulum:

\tau=-Mgd=Mglsin\theta

If we restrict the angle to being small (<10 degrees), as we did for the simple pendulum, we can use the small-angle approximation to write

\tau=-Mgl\theta (eq 14.49)

From Chapter 12, Newton's second law for rotational motion is ##\alpha=\frac{d^2\theta}{dt^2}=\frac{\tau}{I}## where I is the object's moment of inertia about the pivot point. Using eq. 14.49, we find

\frac{d^2\theta}{dt^2}=\frac{-Mgl}{I}\theta

Comparison with eq. 14.32 (##\frac{d^2x}{dt^2}=-\frac{k}{m}x##) shows that this is again the SHM equation of motion, this time with angular frequency

\omega=2\pi f=\sqrt\frac{Mgl}{I}

Something happens to get to that last step that doesn't add up for me... Why is Mgl/I square rooted?
 
It's justified here by comparison to an earlier expression for SHM Eq 14:32. In that section you will probably find a proof that f=1/2*pi sqrt(k/m)

There's a fair explanation in http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Simple_harmonic_motion

It's just that the solution of that differential equation is a cosine with √k/m (you can prove that to yourself by substituting it back)
 
For simple comparison, I think the same thought process can be followed as a block slides down a hill, - for block down hill, simple starting PE of mgh to final max KE 0.5mv^2 - comparing PE1 to max KE2 would result in finding the work friction did through the process. efficiency is just 100*KE2/PE1. If a mousetrap car travels along a flat surface, a starting PE of 0.5 k th^2 can be measured and maximum velocity of the car can also be measured. If energy efficiency is defined by...

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