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Angular velocity of object after being subjected to torque

  1. Nov 2, 2012 #1
    [​IMG]

    In particular I am only looking at part c.

    I know the simpler approach is to use energy.

    But I am thinking if i can do an integration of all the torque throughout the process, and hence find the integration of the net angular acceleration and find the resultant change in angular velocity.

    But I have no idea how to do the mathematics. Can anyone show me how the mathematics is done?
     
  2. jcsd
  3. Nov 2, 2012 #2

    tiny-tim

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    hi serverxeon! :smile:
    τ = Iα …

    torque (of the weight) = 1/3 ML2 d2θ/dt2 :wink:
     
  4. Nov 2, 2012 #3
    hey thanks for the help.

    sorry but I still don't know how to go on from here!

    could you elaborate a bit further!

    In particular I was looking at using the 'infinitesimal' dτ or dα approach.
     
  5. Nov 2, 2012 #4

    tiny-tim

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    there is no dτ or dα in this situation :confused:

    use torque (of the weight) = 1/3 ML2 d2θ/dt2

    what is the torque? (as a function of θ)​
     
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