Another question about the domain in a compound function

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The discussion centers on whether the domain of a compound function can be derived in the same manner as non-compound functions. It highlights that the composition of functions can yield different domains due to restrictions from individual functions, as demonstrated with f(x) = 1/x² and g(x) = √(2x-6). The example shows that while H(x) = 1/(2x-6) has a domain of R - {3}, the compound function f(g(x)) = 1/(√(2x-6))² has a domain of (3,∞). The conversation also touches on the importance of domain restrictions in determining function equality and the implications for complex versus real-valued functions. Understanding these distinctions is crucial for accurately analyzing compound functions.
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¿Could the domain of a compound function be obtained in the same way that non-compound functions?

I think the answer is not, like in this example:

f(x)=1/x²
g(x)=√(2x-6)

f(g(x))=1/(√(2x-6))²

Recently Hurkyl explained me that (a^b)^c is not always equal to a^bc, although, I've proved this step with Derive and it seems to be fine.

f(g(x))=1/(2x-6)

Back to the matter, the domain of the function H(x)=1/(2x-6) is R - {3}

But the domain of f(g(x))=1/(2x-6) is (3,∞)

So, Am I right in the fact that a compound function can have a different domain than the "same function" which isn't the product of a composition of functions?

As always, excuse me if my english isn't very clear.
 
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Note that a function has two parts- a domain (possible values of x) and a rule connecting each x with a unique a. That is "f(x)= x2 for x> 0" is not the same function as "f(x)= x2". In the formula
f(g(x))= \frac{1}{(\sqrt{2x-6})^2}
since the domain of g isx\ge 3, the square root cannot be taken for x< 3 and so the domain is x\ge 3.

f(g(x))= \frac{1}{(\sqrt{2x-6})^2}
is NOT the same function as
\frac{1}{2x-6}.

This is the reason Calculus texts refer to the "deleted" neighborhood of a when taking limits at a. In order to take \lim_{x\rightarrow 2} (x^2-4)/(x-2) you must note that (x^2-4)/(x-2) for all x except x= 2 and use the theorem "If f(x)= g(x) in some deleted neighborhood of a, then they have the same limit at x= a".
 
Thanks, I think I see the things a little more clear now, but why when I simplify
1/(√(2x-6))² with Derive I get 1/2(x-3)?
 
0000 said:
Thanks, I think I see the things a little more clear now, but why when I simplify
1/(√(2x-6))² with Derive I get 1/2(x-3)?

Err... What's Derive? Some computer programme, right? Btw, just don't rely on them so much. :)

Ok, here it goes.

In fact, the statement:
\left( \sqrt{x} \right) ^ 2 = x is incorrect.

When saying f(x) = g(x), it must be true that:
1. f(x), and g(x) have the same domain.
2. They (f(x), and g(x)) return the same value for every x in their domain.

In this case:
\left( \sqrt{x} \right) ^ 2 = x violates the first requirement.

The LHS (left-hand side) function is only defined for x >= 0, while the RHS (right-hand side) is defined for all x in the reals.

But, however, if you restrict the domain for the RHS function to be [0 ; \ \infty [, then they can be said to be equal, i.e: \left( \sqrt{x} \right) ^ 2 = x

--------------------

So, say, we let f(x) = \sqrt (x) ; \quad g(x) = x ^ 2 ; \quad h(x) = x, then:
f(g(x)) does not have the same domain as h(x).

Can you get it? :)
 
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Ok, thanks, your help has been very useful. And yes, Derive it's a math program, maybe it gives that result because it works with complex numbers and in that case I think that 1/(√(2x-6))² could be equal to 1/2(x-3).
 
VietDao made the point that "Derive" is correct iff x ≠ 3. I'd also like to point out that if (\sqrt{x})^2 is a complex valued function, then (\sqrt{x})^2 = x for all x £ C.

In general, if f(z) is a complex valued function and f(z) = g(z) is a relation, then f(z) = g(z) for all z £ C.

If f(x) is a real valued function and f(x) = g(x) is a relation, then f(x) = g(x) for x £ D, where D is the real domain.
 
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