- #1
c.teixeira
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I am guessing the fundamental theorem of calculus, isn't not valid, if the integrand f depends on x. Right?
For example if he had:
[itex]\int^{x}_{0} f(u) ( x-u) du[/itex]. If one would make F(x) = [itex]\int^{x}_{0} g(u) du[/itex], with g(u) = f(u) ( x-u). Then F`(x) = g(x) = f(x) (x-x) = 0. But this is not correct as you know. He have to get the x out of the integral.
So, concluding, The First Fudamental Theorem of Calculus, is valid only if the integrand f , doens't not depend on x. Correct?
For example if he had:
[itex]\int^{x}_{0} f(u) ( x-u) du[/itex]. If one would make F(x) = [itex]\int^{x}_{0} g(u) du[/itex], with g(u) = f(u) ( x-u). Then F`(x) = g(x) = f(x) (x-x) = 0. But this is not correct as you know. He have to get the x out of the integral.
So, concluding, The First Fudamental Theorem of Calculus, is valid only if the integrand f , doens't not depend on x. Correct?