Lynch101
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Thanks Dr.Chinese, I think I understand that part of Bell.DrChinese said:You use the words "no properties whatsoever" and those have no connection to what is being assumed by EPR or Bell.
a) EPR says that if any value can be predicted in advance, it must be pre-existing (and therefore QM is incomplete). Entangled particle pairs demonstrate this feature as EPR believed in 1935. It is sometimes called "perfect correlations" as there is 100% agreement when appropriate measurement settings are chosen.
b) The question Bell asked was: If there are values prior to measurement, then are the values INDEPENDENT of measurement? I.e. are they objectively real? I.e. are they observer independent? I.e. are values for all possible measurement settings predetermined? Bell showed that this extension to a) was NOT possible.
In the language of EPR: the question was whether the values (for each of the many/infinite number of measurement basis choices) are simultaneously real. Bell precludes that, because there is no such set that reproduces the QM expectation values.
So you MUST consider both a) and b) when talking about this. It is easy to jump past one or the other. Your model must reproduce perfect correlations, and statistical percentages at other times. (Of course the perfect correlations are also a subset of the statistical percentages, where the percentage is either 0% or 100%.)
I guess the distinction I am trying to make is between the idea of the properties of the system having predefined values prior to measurement and the idea of the system simply having properties prior to measurement.
My reasoning is that the system must have physical properties prior to measurement, if we are to consider it in the context of the materialist paradigm. A model which doesn't or cannot model the system prior to measurement would, to my mind, have to be considered an incomplete model of nature.