Any help understanding this Lemma is Appreciated

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The discussion centers on a lemma involving the integral of a polynomial function multiplied by another function, specifically addressing the hypothesis that leads to the conclusion that ∫h(u)*p(u)du = 0. User Mining_Engr clarifies that if p(u) is defined as p(u) = ∑_{i=0}^n α_i u^i, then the integral can be expressed as a sum of integrals: ∫h(u) p(u) du = ∑_{i=0}^n α_i ∫h(u) u^i du. Since each integral ∫h(u) u^i du evaluates to zero, the overall sum is confirmed to be zero.

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Mining_Engr
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The lemma and proof are attached, how does the hypothesis imply that ∫h(u)*p(u)du = 0. This is where I am hung up. I don't see how the hypothesis implies this, please help!

Thanks in advance,

Mining_Engr
 

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p(u) is a polynomial, say
[tex]p(u) = \sum_{i=0}^n \alpha_i u^i[/tex]

then
[tex]\int h(u) p(u) du = \int h(u) \sum_{i=0}^n \alpha_i u^i du = \sum_{i=0}^n \alpha_i \int h(u) u^i du[/tex]
and all those integrals at the end are zero so the whole sum is zero
 

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